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DMER Maharashtra nursing paper

DMER Maharashtra nursing paper 

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1. The client admitted with angina is given a prescription for nitroglycerine. The client should be instructed to:-    

A. Replenish his supply every 3 months  

B. Take one every 15 minutes if pain occurs  
C. Leave the medication in brown bottle  
D. Crush the medication and take with water  


Answer: C. Leave the medication in brown bottle   

2. Area rank of Maharashtra in India:
A. 2nd 
B. 4th 
C. 5th 
D. 3rd    

Answer: - D.3rd     
3. A provider calls the nurse to obtain the daily laboratory results of a client who is receiving parenteral nutrition. Which is the most important laboratory result for the nurse to present to the provider?
 A. WBC count 
B. Serum electrolyte levels 
C. Arterial blood gas levels 
D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels   

Answer: B. Serum electrolyte levels   
4. The nurse caring for a client with a closed head injury obtains an intracranial pressure (ICP) reading of 17mmHg. The nurse recognizes that:    
A. The ICP is elevated and the doctor should be notified
 B. The ICP is normal; therefore, no further action is needed 
C. The ICP is low and the client needs additional IV fluids 
D. The ICP reading is not as reliable as the Glasgow coma scale  

Answer: B. The ICP is normal; therefore, no further action is needed
5. While caring for a client with hypertension, the nurse notes the following vital signs, BP of 140/20mmhg, pulse- 120, respirations-36, and temperature-100.8 degree Fahrenheit. The nurse’s initial action should be to.  
A. Call the doctor 
B. Recheck the vital signs 
C. Obtain arterial blood gases 
D. Obtain an ECG  

Answer- A. Call the doctor     
6. What event occurring in the second trimester helps the expectant mother to accept the pregnancy?
A. Lightening 
B. Ballottement 
C. Pseudocyesis 
D. Quickening  

 Answer: D. Quickening    

7. A nurse is assessing a client with Addison’s disease for signs of hyperkalemia. The nurse expects to note which of the following if hyperkalemia is present? 
A. Polyuria 
B. Cardiac dysrhythmias 
C. Dry mucous membranes 
D. Prolonged bleeding time   

Answer: B. Cardiac dysrhythmias  
8. When administering a tuberculin skin test, the nurse should insert needle at a : 
A. 15 angle 
B. 30 angle  
C. 45 angle 
D. 90 angle  

Answer: A.15 angle    
9.If green’ is called ‘white’, ‘white’ is called yellow’, ‘yellow’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is called  ‘pink’ and ‘pink’ is called ‘black’, then what is the colour of sky?  
A. green  
B. blue 
C. pink  
D. yellow      

Answer: - C. pink       

10. Which finding is the best indication that a client with ineffective airway clearance needs suctioning? A. Oxygen saturation 
B. Respiratory rate 
C. Breath sounds 
D. Arterial blood gas     

Answer: - C. Breath sounds 

11. A home care nurse visits a pregnant client who has a diagnosis of mild preeclampsia. Which assessment finding indicates a worsening of the preeclampsia and the need to notify the physician?
A. Urinary output has increased 
B. Dependent edema has resolved 
C. Blood pressure reading is at the prenatal baseline 
D. The clients complains of a headache and blurred Vision    

Answer:- D. The clients complains of a headache and blurred Vision   
12. Each time a client is scheduled for a therapy session she develops headache and nausea. The nurse might interpret this behavior as:    
A. Conversion 
B. Reaction formation 
C. Projection 
D. Suppression   

Answer: A. Conversion  
13. A large muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity and helps with breathing.
A. Larynx 
B. Trachea 
C. Diaphragm 
D. None of these   
 
Answer: C. Diaphragm    
14. The nurse has an order for medication to be administered intrathecally. The nurse is aware that medications will be administered by which method?    
A. Intravenously 
B. Rectally 
C. Intramuscularly 
D. Into the cerebrospinal fluid     

Answer:- D. Into the cerebrospinal fluid   
15. The nurse is teaching a group of new graduates about the safety needs of the client receiving chemotherapy. Before administering chemotherapy, the nurse should:    
A. Administer bolus of IV fluid 
B. Administer pain medication 
C. Administer an antiemetic
D. Allow the patient a chance to eat       

Answer:- C. Administer an antiemetic        
16. Total Number of Districts in Maharashtra? 
A. 36  
B. 34
C. 23  
D. 28      

Answer:- A.36  
17. A nurse is preparing a woman in labor for an amniotomy. The nurse should assess which priority data before the procedure? 
A. Fetal heart rate 
B. Maternal heart rate 
C. Fetal scalp sampling 
D. Maternal blood pressure   

Answer: A. Fetal heart rate                                 
18. In severe pre-eclampsia women can develop HELLP syndrome which is very serious and life threatening. Which of the following are characteristic finding in the HELLP syndrome? 
A. Elevated liver enzymes
B. Hemolysis 
C. Low platelets 
D. All of the choices 

 Answer:- D. All of the choices   
19. DIRECTIONS: Select the related numbers from the given alternatives.     21 : 3 :: 574 : ? 
A. 23 
B. 82 
C. 97
D. 113     

Answer:  B.82        
20. The client with suspected meningitis is admitted to the unit. The doctor is performing an assessment to determine meningeal irritation and spinal nerve root inflammation. A positive Kernig’s sign is charted if the nurse notes:    
A. Pain on flexion of the hip and knee 
B. Nuchal rigidity on flexion of the neck 
C. Pain when the head is turned to the left side 
D. Dizziness when changing positions   

Answer: A. Pain on flexion of the hip and knee     
21.   Which of the following clinical manifestations suggests the presence of vulvo-vaginal candidiasis?
A. Mucoid discharge and redness
B. Multiple ulcerative lesions with pruritus
C. Greenish yellow discharge and pruritus
D. Curdy discharge, moist reddened skin and pruritus
Ans D.Curdy discharge, moist reddened skin and pruritus
22. If a train, with a speed of 60 km/hr, crossed a pole in 60 second, the length of the train (in meters) is: A. 1000
B. 900  
C. 750  
D. 500       

Answer:-  A.1000 
23. The longest vein in the human body is; 
A. Jugular 
B. Inferior venacava 
C. Long saphenous 
D. Subclavian   

Answer:- C. Long saphenous      
24. In which gestational age the Chronic villus sampling (CVS) can be performed trans cervically. 
A. 7-9 weeks  
B. 10-12 weeks  
C. 16-18 weeks 
D. 20-22 weeks       

Answer: - B. 10-12 weeks      
25. Albumin is one of the plasma proteins is synthesized in : 
A. Spleen  
B. Pancreas 
C. Adrenal gland 
D. Liver     

Answer: - D. Liver     
26. Which cell feature is responsible for making proteins? 
A. Lysosome 
B. Ribosomes 
C. Mitochondria 
D. None of these  

Answer- A. Lysosome   

27. A client with psychotic depression is receiving haloperidol (Haldol). Which of the following side effects is associated with haloperidol?    
A. Akathisia 
B. Cataracts 
C. Diaphoresis
D. Polyuria   
 
Answer: - A. Akathisia     
28. In planning care for the patient with ulcerative colitis, the nurse identifies which nursing diagnosis as a priority? 
A. Anxiety 
B. Impaired skin integrity 
C. Fluid volume deficit 
D. Nutrition altered, less than body requirements    

Answer: - C. Fluid volume deficit     
29. A nurse is performing an assessment on a pregnant client with a history of cardiac disease. The nurse checks which body area for venous congestion, knowing that it is most commonly noted in this area? 
A. Vulva 
B. Around the eyes 
C. Fingers of the hands 
D. Around the abdomen  

Answer: A. Vulva   

30. A client with increased intracranial pressure is placed on mechanical ventilation with hyperventilation. The nurse knows that the purpose of the hyperventilation is to:   
A. Prevent the development of acute respiratory failure 
B. Decrease cerebral blood flow 
C. Increase systemic tissue perfusion 
D. Prevent cerebral anoxia 
   
Answer: - B. Decrease cerebral blood flow  
 
31. The nurse is evaluating nutritional outcomes for an elderly client with anorexia nervosa. Which data best indicates that the plan of care is effective?    
A. The client selects a balanced diet from the menu 
B. The clients hematocrit improves 
C. The clients tissue turgor improves 
D. The client gains gait   

Answer - D. The client gains gait     

32. A nurse is reviewing the record of a client in the labor room and notes that the nurse midwife has documented that the fetus is at -1 station. The nurse determines that the fetal presenting part is: 
A. 1 inch below the coccyx 
B. 1 inch below the iliac crest
C. 1 cm above the ischial spine 
D. 1 fingerbreadth below the symphysis pubis     

Answer: - C.1 cm above the ischial spine
    
33. An important intervention in monitoring the dietary compliance of a client with bulimia is: 
A. Allowing the client privacy during mealtimes 
B. Praising her for eating all her meal 
C. Observing her for 1-2 hours after meals 
D. Encouraging her to choose foods she likes and to eat in moderation
     
Answer: - C. Observing her for 1-2 hours after meals
     
 34. The nurse is caring for a client following the removal of a central line catheter when the client suddenly develops dyspnea and complains of substernal chest pain. The client is noticeably confused and fearful. The nurse should suspect which complication of central line use? 
A. Myocardial infraction 
B. Air embolus 
C. Intrathoracic bleeding 
D. Vagal response
     
Answer: - B. Air embolus

35. DIRECTIONS: Select the related letters from the given alternatives.     LOM : NMK :: PKI : ? 
A. RIH 
B. SHG 
C. RIG 
D. RHG
  
Answer: C.RIG
 
36. What is the function of blood platelets? 
A. Carry haemoglobin 
B. Aid in coagulation of blood  
C. Ingest bacteria  
D. Transport CO2
   
Answer: - B. Aid in coagulation of blood
  
37. A client with a history of diabetes insipidus is admitted with polyuria, polydipsia, and mental confusion. The priority intervention for this client is:    
A. Measure the urinary output 
B. Check the vital signs 
C. Encourage increased fluid intake 
D. Weigh the client
    
Answer: B. Check the vital signs
      
38. Which of the following meal selections is appropriate for the client with celiac disease? 
A. Toast, jam, and apple juice 
B. Peanut butter cookies and milk 
C. Rice krispies bar and milk 
D. Cheese pizza and kool-Aid
    
Answer: C. Rice krispies bar and milk
      
39. A pregnant client with diabetes mellitus arrives at the health care clinic for a follow-up visit. What priority assessment should the nurse monitor?    
A. Urine for specific gravity 
B. For the presence of edema 
C. Urine for glucose and ketones 
D. Blood pressure, pulse and respirations
  
Answer: C. Urine for glucose and ketones
    
40. During which of the following stages of labour would the nurse assess ‘crowning’ 
A. First stage 
B. Second stage 
C. Third stage 
D. Fourth stage
 
Answer: B. Second stage
    
41. The client is taking rifampin 600mg PO daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication?    
A. Telling the client that the medication will need to be taken with juice 
B. Telling the client that the medication will change the colour of the urine 
C. Telling the client to take the medication before going to bed at night 
D. Telling the client to take medication if the night sweats occur
     
Answer: B. Telling the client that the medication will change the colour of the urine
      
42. A client with hemophilia has nosebleed. Which nursing action is most appropriate to control the bleeding? 
A. Place the client in a sitting position with the head hyper extended 
B. Pack the nares tightly with gauze to apply pressure to the source of bleeding 
C. Pinch the soft lower part of the nose for a minimum 5 minutes 
D. Apply ice packs to the forehead and back of the neck
   
Answer: C. Pinch the soft lower part of the nose for a minimum 5 minutes
      
43. The nurse is planning dietary changes for a client following an episode of pancreatitis. Which diet is suitable for the client? 
A. Low calorie, low carbohydrate 
B. High calorie, low fat 
C. High protein, high fat 
D. Low protein, high carbohydrate
   
Answer: B. High calorie, low fat
    
44. A client is at 35 weeks of gestation calls the nurse at the clinic and reports a sudden discharge of fluid from the vagina. Based on the data provided, the suspects which of the following conditions?
A. Miscarriage 
B. Preterm labor 
C. Intrauterine fetal demise 
D. Premature rupture of the membranes
   
Answer: D. Premature rupture of the membranes
     
45. A client with a c6 spinal cord injury 2 months ago now complains of a pounding headache. The pulse is 64 and the blood pressure is 220/110mmhg. Which of the following action should the nurse take first?
A. Give analgesic as ordered 
B. Check for fecal impaction
C. Elevate the client’s head and lower the legs 
D. Notify the physician
     
Answer: C. Elevate the client’s head and lower the legs
     
 46. A nurse plans to assess a client for the vegetative signs of depression. The nurse assesses for these signs by determining the clients: 
A. Level of self-esteem 
B. Level of suicidal ideation 
C. Ability to think, concentrate and make rational decisions 
D. Appetite, weight, sleep patterns and psychomotor activity
   
Answer: D. Appetite, weight, sleep patterns and psychomotor activity
    
47. A nurse is caring for an infant who is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of haemolytic disease. The nurse reviews the laboratory results, expecting to note which of the following in this infant?
A. Decreased bilirubin count 
B. Elevated blood glucose level 
C. Decreased RBC count 
D. Decreased white blood cell count
   
Answer: C. Decreased RBC count
   
48. A client had arterial blood gases drawn. The results are a pH of 7.34, a partial pressure of carbon dioxide of 37 mm Hg, a partial pressure of oxygen of 79 mm Hg and a bicarbonate level of 19 mEq/L. the nurse interprets that the client is experiencing:    
A. Metabolic acidosis 
B. Metabolic alkalosis 
C. Respiratory acidosis 
D. Respiratory alkalosis
   
Answer: A. Metabolic acidosis
  
49. At 28-30 weeks gestation where would you expect to find the uterine fundus? 
A. Umbilicus 
B. Xiphisternum 
C. Symphysis pubis 
D. Half way between umbilicus and xiphisternum
   
Answer: D. Half way between umbilicus and xiphisternum
   
 50. The nursing care plan is_______ 

A. A written guideline for implementation and evaluation 
B. A documentation of client care 
C. A projection of potential alterations in client behaviors 
D. A tool to set goals and project outcomes
     
Answer: A. A written guideline for implementation and evaluation
      
51. In an examination a candidate who got 30% of the total marks failed by 8 marks. Another candidate who got 35% got 12 marks more than the passing marks. Total marks are    
A. 500  
B. 400   
C. 800 
D. 300
      
Answer: - B.400
 
52. Tunica adventitia is a part of – 
A. Blood vessels 
B. Testes 
C. Scrotum 
D. Kidney
   
Answer: A. Blood vessels
      
53. A nurse is preparing to administer a chemotherapeutic agent via intraperitoneal therapy. In which position should the nurse plan to place the client before administering this therapy? 
A. Supine 
B. Semi-fowler’s 
C. Trendelenburg’s
D. Dorsal recumbent
     
Answer: B. Semi-fowler’s

54. Which of the following neurotransmitter is khown to be associated with sleep, mood and appetite?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D. GABA
Ans C Serotonin
55. In a certain code GONE is written as ‘5139’ and NODAL is written as ‘31268’. How is LODGE written in that code language? 
A. 81259 
B. 84259 
C. 82459   
D. 82659
     
Answer: - A. 81259

 56. A client with hyperthyroidism is taking lithium carbonate to inhibit thyroid hormone release With complaint by the client should alert the nurse to a problem with the client’s medication?

A. The client complains of blurred vision 
B. The client complains of increased thirst and increased urination 
C. The client complains of increased weight gain over the past year 
D. The client complains of ringing in the ears
     
Answer: - B. The client complains of increased thirst and increased urination
   
57. Out of the given four words only one is not spelt correctly. Find the word that is not correctly spelt.
A. apparantlly 
B. noticeable 
C. necessary 
D. occurrence

Answer: - A. apparantlly
     
 58. A client is scheduled for an arteriogram using a radiopaque dye. The nurse assesses which most critical item before the procedure?
A. Vital signs 
B. Intake and output 
C. Height and weight 
D. Allergy to iodine or shellfish
     
Answer: - D. Allergy to iodine or shellfish
 
59. DIRECTIONS: A sentence with an underlined word is given below. Find the Word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.New technology means that astronomers can accomplish in a single night what once took years.
A. achieve 
B. separate 
C. eliminate 
D. abandon
    
Answer: A. achieve
      
60. FHS can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following? 
A. 5 weeks gestation 
B. 10 weeks gestation 
C. 15 weeks gestation 
D. 20 weeks gestation
   
Answer: D. 20 weeks gestation
    
61. The nurse is caring for a client with an intracranial aneurysm. The nurse interprets that which of the following is related to the dysfunction of cranial nerve III? 
A. Mild drowsiness 
B. Ptosis of the left eyelid 
C. Slight slurring of speech 
D. Less frequent spontaneous speech    

Answer:- B. Ptosis of the left eyelid
  
62.
 63. A home care nurse assesses an older client’s functional status and ability to perform activities of daily living. The nurse focuses the assessment on:    
A. Everyday routines 
B. Self-care activities 
C. Household management 
D. Endurance and flexibility 
 
Answer: B. Self-care activities
 
 64. Which of the following post-operative diets is most appropriate for the client who has had a haemorrhoidectomy? 
A. High-fibre 
B. Low-residue 
C. Bland 
D. Clear-liquid
     
Answer: D. Clear-liquid
      
65. Out of the given options, choose the most appropriate one to fill in the blank.     She has fought a constant battle _____ depression throughout her career.    
A. with 
B. from 
C. at 
D. into
     
Answer: A. with
  
66. If a:b is 3:4, b:c is 2:5, find a : b : c.
 
A. 3 : 4 : 10 
B. 3 : 5 : 7 
C. 3 : 4 : 8 
D. 3 : 2 : 9
    
Answer: - A. 3 : 4 : 10
    
67. The nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client with elevated cholesterol levels. Which cooking oil is not suggested for the client on a low-cholesterol diet?    
A. Safflower oil 
B. Sunflower oil 
C. Coconut oil 
D. Canola oil
     
Answer:- C. Coconut oil
    
68. A 6-month-old is hospitalized with symptoms of botulism. What aspect of the infant’s history is associated with CLOSTRIDIUM BOTULISM infection?   

A. The infant sucks on his fingers and toes 
B. The mother sweetens the infant’s cereal with honey 
C. The infant was switched to soy-based formula 
D. The father recently purchased an aquarium
      
Answer: - B. The mother sweetens the infant’s cereal with honey
      
69. Which of the following is not included in the definition of personality psychology:
 
A. It deals with adaptations to the environment 
B. It deals with how traits influence the environment 
C. It deals with how the environment influences traits 
D. All of the above are included
     
Answer:- D. All of the above are included
  
 70. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving parenteral nutrition through a central venous catheter. Which action should the nurse plan to implement to decrease the risk of infection in this client? 
A. Track the client’s oral temperature 
B. Administer antibiotics intravenously 
C. Evaluate the differential of the leukocytes 
D. Use sterile technique for dressing changes
     
Answer: D. Use sterile technique for dressing changes
     
 71. Total Area of Maharashtra State: 
A. 307,713 km 2  
B. 607,713 km 2  
C. 189,718 km 2  
D. 217,718 km 2
      
Answer- A.307,713 km 2
        
72. During the first 4 hours after a male circumcision, assessing for which of the following is the priority?
A. Infection 
B. Hemorrhage 
C. Discomfort
D. Dehydration
   
Answer:- B. Hemorrhage

73. A client receiving parnate (tranylcypromine) is admitted in hypertensive crisis. Which food is capable of producing a hypertensive crisis when taken with the medication?    
A. Processed cheese 
B. Cottage cheese 
C. Cream cheese 
D. Cheddar cheese
     
Answer: D. Cheddar cheese
      
74. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of hepatitis. Who is experiencing pruritis. Which would be the most appropriate nursing intervention?    
A. Suggest that the client take warm showers two times per day 
B. Add baby oil to the client’s bath water 
C. Apply powder to the client’s skin 
D. Suggest a hot-water rinse after bathing
     
Answer: - B. Add baby oil to the client’s bath water
      
75. A client with pancreatitis has been transferred to the intensive care unit. Which order would the nurse anticipate? 
A. Blood pressure every 15 minutes 
B. Insertion of a Levine tube
C. Cardiac monitoring 
D. Dressing changes two times per day
     
Answer:- B. Insertion of a Levine tube
   
76. A client is being discharged to home while recovering from acute renal failure. The client indicates an understanding of the therapeutic dietary regimen if the client states the need to eat foods that are lower in: 
A. Fats   
B. Vitamins 
C. Potassium   
D. Carbohydrates
      
 Answer: C. Potassium
  
77. What will come in place of Question mark (?) in the following number series?     3, 4.5, 9, 22.5, 67.5, (?), 945 
A. 265.25 
B. 236.25 
C. 225.36 
D. 150
       
Answer:- B. 236.25
      
78. An adult is pacing about the unit and wringing his hands. He is breathing rapidly and complains of palpitations and nausea and he has difficulty focusing on what the nurse is saying. He says he is having a heart attack but refuses to rest. The nurse would interpret his level of anxiety as: 
A. Mild 
B. Moderate 
C. Severe 
D. Panic
   
Answer:- D. Panic
    
79. A mother and her 3-week-old infant arrive at the well-baby clinic for a rescreening test for phenylketonuria(PKU). The nurse reviews the results of the serum phenylalanine levels a notes that the level is 1.0 mg/dl. The nurse interprets this level as: 
A. Normal  
B. Inconclusive 
C. Requiring a repeat study 
D. Elevated and indicating PKU
       
Answer:- A. Normal
     
 80. Labour is called normal if it fulfills the following criteria except –
A. Spontaneous in onset and at term
B. With vertex presentation 
C. Modifying the nature of termination 
D. Without undue prolongation
   
Answer:- C. Modifying the nature of termination
    
81. Pale white vaginal discharge for the first fortnight during puerperium is: 

A. Lochia rubra 
B. Lochia serosa 
C. Lochia alba 
D. Lochia tuna
     
Answer:- C. Lochia alba
   
82 DIRECTIONS: A sentence with an underlined word is given below. Find the word which is opposite to the highlighted word from the given options.     The city was annihilated by an atomic bomb. 
A. Created 
B. Ruined 
C. Demolished 
D. Destructed
     
Answer: A. created
  
83. The nurse is teaching the client regarding use of sodium warfarin. Which statement made  by the client would require further teaching?    
A. “I will have blood drawn every month” 
B. “I will assess my skin for a rash” 
C. “I take aspirin for a headache” 
D. “I will use an electric razor for shave”
     
Answer: C. “I take aspirin for a headache”
      
84. Which activity is best suited to the 12 –year-old with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis? 
A. Playing video games 
B. Swimming 
C. Working crossword puzzles 
D. Playing slow-pitch softball
       
Answer: B. Swimming
        
85. Planning is a category of nursing behaviors in which: 
A. The nurse determines the health care needed for the Patient 
B. The Physician determines the plan of care for the Patient 
C. Patient -centered goals and expected outcomes are established 
D. The Patient determines the care needed
    
Answer: C. Patient -centered goals and expected outcomes are established
       
86. The home health nurse is visiting a 15–year old with sickle cell disease. Which information obtained on the visit would cause the most concern? The client:    
A. Likes to play baseball 
B. Drinks several carbonated drinks per day 
C. Has two sisters with sickle cell tract 
D. Is taking Tylenol to control pain
     
Answer: A. Likes to play baseball
      
87. The nurse prepares to administer an enteral feeding to a client through a nasogastric tube. Which is the priority intervention for the nurse to complete before administering the feeding? 
A. Determining tube placement 
B. Auscultating the tube bowel sounds 
C. Measuring the intake and output 
D. Establishing the client’s baseline weight
   
Answer: A. Determining tube placement
    
88. The client delivered a 9- pound infant two days ago. An effective means of managing discomfort from an episiotomy is:  
A. Medicated suppository 
B. Aspirin 
C. Sitz baths 
D. Ice packs
     
Answer: C. Sitz baths

 89. The client is having electroconvulsive therapy for treatment of severe depression. Which of the following indicates that the client’s ECT has been effective?     
A. The client loses consciousness 
B. The client vomits 
C. The client’s ECG indicates tachycardia 
D. The client has grand mal seizure
     
Answer: D. The client has grand mal seizure
 
90. A man is admitted to the intensive care unit with chest pain, an abnormal ECG, and elevated enzymes. When the significance of this is explained to him, he says, “I can’t be having a heart attack. No way. You must be mistaken.” The nurse suspect the client is using which defense mechanism?
A. Sublimation  
B. Regression 
C. Dissociation  
D. Denial
     
Answer: D. Denial
      
91. The nurse is obtaining a history from a client who was admitted to the hospital with a thrombotic brain attack. The nurse assesses the client, knowing that before the stroke occurred, the client most likely experienced: 
A. No symptoms at all  
B. Throbbing headaches 
C. Transient hemiplegia and loss of speech 
D. Unexplained episodes of loss of consciousness
   
Answer:-  C. Transient hemiplegia and loss of speech
   
 92. Which of the following statements about AIDS is true? 
A. The disease is highly infectious 
B. The fatality rate is low if the disease is detected in its early stages 
C. Most people who get AIDS die of pneumonia 
D. None of the above
       
Answer: D. None of the above
       
 93. The home health nurse is visiting a client with Paget’s disease. An important part Of preventive care for the client with Paget’s disease is:  
A. Keeping the environment free of clutter 
B. Advising the client to see the dentist regularly 
C. Encouraging the client to take influenza vaccine 
D. Telling the client to take a daily multivitamin
       
Answer:- A. Keeping the environment free of clutter

94. For blood clotting fibrinogen is changed into fibrin with the help of – 
A. Antithrombin  
B. Thrombin  
C. Platelets 
D. Vitamin K
   
Answer:- B. Thrombin
   
 95. The client is admitted with left-sided congestive heart failure. In assessing the client for edema, the nurse should check the:    
A. Feet 
B. Neck 
C. Hands 
D. Sacrum
     
Answer:- B. Neck
     
 96. A client is hospitalized with signs of transplant rejection following a recent transplant. Assessment of the client would be expected to reveal:    
A. A weight loss of 2 pounds in 1 day 
B. A serum creatinine 1.25 mg/dl 
C. Urinary output of 50ml /hr 
D. Rising blood pressure
    
Answer: D. Rising blood pressure
      
97. A nurse is caring for an infant with laryngomalacia. Which position would the nurse place the infant in to decrease the incidence of stridor? 
A. Prone 
B. Supine 
C. Supine with the neck flexed 
D. Prone with the neck hyperextended
   
Answer: D. Prone with the neck hyperextended

98. A 5- year –old is a family contact to the client with tuberculosis. Isoniazid (INH) has been prescribed for the client. The nurse is aware that the length of time that the medication will be taken is: 
A. 1 year 
B. 3 months 
C. 6 months 
D. 2 years
   
Answer: A.1 year
      
99. Which of the following is/are part of the definition of learning? 
A. Change in behavior 
B. Relatively permanent 
C. Brought about by experience 
D. All of the above
     
Answer: D. All of the above
     
100. A client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver is not tolerating protein well, as evidenced by abnormal laboratory values. The nurse anticipates that which of the following medications will be prescribed for the client? 
A. Folic acid
B. Lactulose 
C. Thiamine 
D. Ethacrynic acid
   
Answer: B. Lactulose
    
101. The client is admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Blood gases reveal pH 7.36, CO2 45, O2 84, bicarb 28. The nurse would assess the client to be in:
A. Uncompensated acidosis 
B. Compensated alkalosis 
C. Compensated respiratory acidosis 
D. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
     
Answer: C. Compensated respiratory acidosis
 
 102. A client has had a laryngectomy for throat cancer and has started oral intake. The nurse determines that the client has tolerated the first stage of dietary advancement if the client takes which of the following types of diet without aspirating or choking? 
A. Bland 
B. Full liquids 
C. Clear liquids 
D. Semisolid foods
   
Answer: D. Semisolid foods
  
103. The immunoglobulin found in a mother's milk is_______

A. IgM 
B. IgA 
C. IgE 
D. IgG
     
Answer: B. IgA
      
104. DIRECTIONS: Select the one which is different from the other three responses.    
A. 45 
B. 35 
C. 85 
D. 72
      
Answer: D. 72
     
105. A client with hypothyroidism frequently complains of feeling cold. The nurse should tell the client that she will be more comfortable if she:    
A. Uses an electric blanket at night 
B. Dresses in extra layers of clothing 
C. Applies a heating pad to her feet
D. Takes a hot bath morning and evening
    
Answer:- B. Dresses in extra layers of clothing
      
106. The physician is preparing to remove a central line. The nurse should tell the client to: 
A. Breathe normally 
B. Take slow, deep breaths 
C. Take a deep breath and hold it 
D. Breathe as quickly as possible
     
Answer: C. Take a deep breath and hold it
      
107. The home care nurse is preparing to visit a client with a diagnosis of meniere’s disease. The nurse reviews the physician prescription and expects to note that which of the following dietary measures is prescribed? 
A. A low-fiber diet with decreased fluid
B. A low-sodium diet and fluid restriction 
C. A low-fat diet with a restriction of citrus fruits 
D. A low-carbohydrate diet and the elimination of red meats
   
Answer: B. A low-sodium diet and fluid restriction
    
108. An elderly client is diagnosed with intestinal cystitis. Which finding differentiates intestinal cystitis from other forms cystitis?    
A. The client is asymptomatic 
B. The urine is free of bacteria
C. The urine contains blood
D. Males are affected more often
       
Answer: B. The urine is free of bacteria

109. Father of scientific management theory:
A. Frederick
B. Lydia hall
C. Ivan pavlov
D. Willium james
Ans A Frederick

110. A client is admitted with a blood alcohol level of 180mg/dl. The nurse recognize that the alcohol in the clients system should be fully metabolized within: 
A. 3 hours 
B. 5 hours 
C. 7 hours 
D. 9 hours
       
Answer: D. 9 hours
     
111. The cell body of neuron is also called as_______ 
A. Dendrite 
B. Axon 
C. Soma 
D. None of these
     
Answer: C. Soma
      
112. Which of the following is a prostaglandin commonly used in induction of labour: 
A. Misoprostol  
B. Atenolol 
C. Labetalol 
D. None of the above
     
Answer: A. Misoprostol
   
113. The average of 10, 12, 16 and 18 is: 
A. 14
B. 13 
C. 12
D. 15
          
Answer: A. 14
      
 114. A nurse is caring for a child with renal disease and is analysing the child’s laboratory results. The nurse notes a sodium level of 148 mEq/L. on the basis of this finding, which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to note in the child? 
A. Lethargy 
B. Diaphoresis 
C. Cold, wet skin 
D. Dry, sticky mucous membranes
   
Answer: D. Dry, sticky mucous membranes
  
115. A nurse is checking the fundus of a postpartum woman and notes that the uterus is soft and spongy. Which nursing action appropriate initially? 
A. Notify the physician 
B. Encourage the mother to ambulate 
C. Massage the fundus gently until it is firm 
D. Document fundal position, consistency and height
   
Answer: C. Massage the fundus gently until it is firm
 
116. A nurse is performing an assessment of a client who is scheduled for a caesarean delivery. Which assessment finding would indicate a need to contact the physician? 
A. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl 
B. Fetal heart rate of 180 beats/min 
C. Maternal pulse rate of 85 beats/min 
D. White blood cell count of 12000/mm3
    
Answer: B. Fetal heart rate of 180 beats/min
   
117. State which has decided to give 1% reservation to orphan children in government jobs -    
A. Maharashtra  
B. Madhya Pradesh 
C. Karnataka  
D. Uttar Pradesh
        
Answer: A. Maharashtra
        
 118. To prevent deformities of the knee joints in a client with an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis, the nurse should: 
A. Tell the client to remain on bed rest until swelling subsides 
B. Discourage passive range of motion because it will cause further swelling 
C. Encourage motion of the joint within the limits of pain 
D. Tell the client she will need joint immobilization for 2-3 weeks
       
Answer: C. Encourage motion of the joint within the limits of pain
       
 119. The protein found in blood that is responsible for transporting oxygen is: 
A. Erythropoietin 
B. Hemoglobin 
C. Gamma globulin 
D. All of the above
   
Answer: A. Erythropoietin

120. The process by which the muscular fibers of the cervix are pulled upward and merges with the fibers of the lower uterine segment is: 
A. Polarity of uterus 
B. Effacement 
C. Efforts 
D. Engagement
     
Answer: B. Effacement
  
121. The nurse prepares to administer a continuous intravenous infusion through a peripheral IV to a client who has dehydration. Which is the priority nursing assessment before initiating the IV infusion?
A. Checking a daily body weight 
B. Checking the serum electrolyte 
C. Checking intake and output records 
D. Asking the client about the dominant side
   
Answer: A. Checking a daily body weight
    
122. The nurse is admitting a client with a suspected duodenal ulcer. The client will most likely to report that his abdominal discomfort decreases when he:    
A. Skips a meal 
B. Rests in a recumbent position 
C. Eats a meal 
D. Sits upright after eating
     
Answer: C. Eats a meal
      
123. When providing postoperative care for the child with a cleft palate, the nurse should position the child in which of the following positions? 
A. Supine 
B. Prone 
C. In an infant seat 
D. On the side
   
Answer: B. Prone
    
124. To initiate an intervention the nurse must be competent in three areas, which include: 
A. Knowledge, function, and specific skills 
B. Experience, advanced education, and skills 
C. Skills, finances, and leadership 
D. Leadership, autonomy, and skills
     
Answer: A. Knowledge, function, and specific skills
     
125. Chordae tendinae is found in: 
A. Auricles of heart 
B. Ventricles of heart 
C. Ventricles of brain 
D. Sinus venous
   
Answer: B. Ventricles of heart
  
126. The pacemaker of heart is: 
A. SA node 
B. AV node 
C. Bundle of His 
D. Purkinje fibre
   
Answer: A. SA node
    
127. A client goes into respiratory distress, and blood for an arterial blood gas assessment is drawn from the radial artery. The nurse performs Allen’s test before the blood is drown to determine the adequacy of the: 
A. Ulnar circulation 
B. Carotid circulation 
C. Brachial circulation 
D. Femoral circulation
   
Answer: A. Ulnar circulation
   
128 The most common means of transmitting the tubercle bacillus from one individual to another by _______. 
A. Air borne 
B. Using public toilet 
C. Milk products 
D. Eating utensils
   
Answer: A. Air borne
    
129. In the given sentence there might be an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. lf there is no error, mark your answer as (d) i.e. ‘No error’.     He was (a) /one of the soldiers (b) /who fought for the independence of the country. (c) / No Error (d) 
A. (a) 
B. (b) 
C. (c) 
D. (d)
     
Answer: D. (d)
      
130. The nurse is caring for a patient with suspected diverticulitis. The nurse would be most prudent in questioning which of the following diagnostic tests ordered.    
A. Colonoscopy 
B. Barium enema 
C. Complete blood count 
D. Computed tomography (CT) scan
    
Answer: B. Barium enema
    
 131. The nurse determines that a Mantoux tuberculin skin test is positive. To most accurately diagnose tuberculosis, the nurse plans to consult with the physician to follow up the skin test with a: 
A. Chest X-ray 
B. Sputum culture 
C. CBC count 
D. CT scan of the chest
   
Answer: B. Sputum culture
    
132. Which of the following groups of newborn reflexes below are present at birth and remain unchanged through adulthood? 
A. Blink, cough, rooting, gag 
B. Blink, cough, sneeze, gag 
C. Rooting, sneeze, swallowing, cough 
D. Stepping, blink, cough, sneeze
     
Answer:- B. Blink, cough, sneeze, gag
    
133. Diaphragm is supplied by _______ artery : 
A. Coronary 
B. Phrenic 
C. Vasa vasorum 
D. Renal
 
Answer: B. Phrenic
 

134. The two major opening of the left ventricle are: 
A. Tricuspid valve and pulmonary artery 
B. Bicuspid valve and aorta 
C. Inferior venacava and aorta 
D. Pulmonary vein and aorta
     
Answer: B. Bicuspid valve and aorta
    
135. Which activity is suitable for a client who suffered an uncomplicated myocardial infarction (MI) 2-days ago? 
A. Sitting in the bedside chair for 15 minutes three times a day 
B. Remaining on strict bed rest with bedside commode privileges 
C. Ambulating in the room and hall as tolerated 
D. Sitting on the bedside for 5 minutes three times a day with assistance
     
Answer: D. Sitting on the bedside for 5 minutes three times a day with assistance
      
136. The nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis. The client is vomiting and complaining of abdominal cramps and diarrhea. The nurse also notes that the client is hypotensive and experiencing facial muscle twitching. The nurse interprets that these symptoms are compatible with: 
A. Myasthenic crisis 
B. Cholinergic crisis
C. Systemic infection 
D. A reaction to plasmapheresis
   
Answer: B. Cholinergic crisis
   
 137. The nurse is checking the client’s central venous pressure. The nurse should place the zero of the manometer at the: 
A. Phlebostatic axis 
B. PMI 
C. Erb’s pont 
D. Tail of Spence
     
Answer: A. Phlebostatic axis
      
138. Normally cardiac cycle takes ________ seconds to complete. 
A. 0.01 
B. 0.8 
C. 0.08 
D. 0.1
 
Answer: B. 0.8
 
139. A client 12 weeks pregnant come to the emergency department with abdominal cramping and moderate vaginal bleeding. Speculum examination reveals 2 to 3 cms cervical dilation. The nurse would document these findings as which of the following? 
A. Threatened abortion
B. Imminent abortion 
C. Complete abortion 
D. Missed abortion
     
Answer: B. Imminent abortion
    
140. The nurse caring for a client with full thickness burns to the lower half of the torso and lower extremities. During the emergent phase of injury, the primary nursing diagnosis would focus on: 
A. In effective airway clearance 
B. Impaired gas exchange 
C. Fluid volume deficit 
D. Pain
     
Answer: C. Fluid volume deficit
   
 141. A client manages peptic ulcer disease with excessive amount of oral antacids. The client is at risk for which acid-base imbalance? 
A. Metabolic acidosis 
B. Metabolic alkalosis 
C. Respiratory acidosis 
D. Respiratory alkalosis
   
Answer: B. Metabolic alkalosis
   
142. A client develops a temperature of 102 degree Fahrenheit following coronary artery bypass  surgery. The nurse should notify the physician immediately because elevations in temperature; 
A. Increased cardiac output 
B. Indicate cardiac tamponade 
C. Decrease cardiac output 
D. Indicate graft rejection
     
Answer: A. Increased cardiac output
   
 143. After an amniotomy has been performed, a nurse should first assess:

A. For cervical dilation
B. For bladder distention 
C. The maternal blood pressure 
D. The fetal heart rate pattern
     
Answer: D. The fetal heart rate pattern
     
 144. The nurse is preparing to administer a feeding via a nasogastric tube. The nurse would perform which of the following before initiating the feeding?    
A. Assess for tube placement by aspirating stomach content 
B. Place the patient in a left-lying position 
C. Administer feeding with 50% H2O concentration 
D. Ensure the feeding solution has been warmed in a microwave for 2 minutes
       
Answer: A. Assess for tube placement by aspirating stomach content
   
145. What is the number of Rajya Sabha seats from Maharashtra?    
A. 17 
B. 18 
C. 19  
D. 20
        
Answer: C.19
    
 146. A client with tuberculosis has a prescription for Myambutol (ethambutol HCL). The nurse should tell the client to notify the doctor immediately if he notices:    
A. Gastric distress 
B. Change in hearing 
C. Red discoloration of body fluids 
D. Change in colour vision
     
Answer: D. Change in colour vision
      
147. The nurse assessment of a patient with lung cancer reveals the following: copious secretions, dyspnea, and cough. Based on these findings the most appropriate nursing diagnose is: 
A. Impaired gas exchange 
B. Ineffective airway clearance 
C. Pain 
D. Altered tissue perfusion
         
Answer: B. Ineffective airway clearance
         
148.   Right Hemisphere damage which not included:
A. Right hemiplegia
B. Left hemiplegia
C. Left hemiparesis
D. Weakness in left side of body

Ans A Right hemiplegia

149. A client is experiencing diabetes insipidus as a result of cranial surgery. The nurse who is caring for the client plans to implement which of these anticipated therapies    
A. Fluid restriction 
B. Administering diuretics 
C. Increased sodium intake 
D. Intravenous replacement of fluid losses
   
Answer: D. Intravenous replacement of fluid losses
    
150. A child was diagnosed with acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis and renal insufficiency. Which laboratory result will the nurse expect to note in the child? 
A. Negative protein in the urinalysis 
B. Negative RBC in the urinalysis 
C. An elevated WBC count 
D. Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
   
Answer: D. Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatin

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