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High Yield MCQs for Nursing Officer exam part 9



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High Yield MCQs for Nursing Officer exam part 9




901. Acute brain syndrome is a disorder of?
A. Thoughts
B. Perception
C. Consciousness
D. Memory

Ans C

902. Specific manifestation in menopause is:
A. Hot flashes
B. Hypotension
C. Hypothermia
D. Anorexia

Ans A

903. Which of the following is the most common cause of maternal mortality in India?
A. Obstetric hemorrhage
B. Malnutrition
C. Anaemia
D. Septicemia

Ans A

904. Stillbirth rate includes babies dead after:
A. 20 weeks
B. 24 weeks
C. 28 weeks
D. 32 weeks

Ans C

905. Secondary amenorrhoea is.........:
A. Had menstrual period and stop it for six month or more
B. failure of menses to occur by age 16 years
C. Infrequent or irregular ovulation
D. Abnormally light menstrual periods

Ans A

906. Distention of the vagina caused by accu-mulation of fluid due to congenital vaginal obstruction is known as:
A. Hydro vaginitis
B. Hydrocolpos
C. Hydro vaginosis
D. Vaginismus

Ans B

907. A condition in which the menstruation occurs but is not visible because of an obstruction of the outflow tract is known as:
A. Cryptomenorrhoea
B. Dysmenorrhoea
C. Xerocolpos
D. Menorrhagia

Ans A

908. Male intersex is.............?
A. Male gonads with female external genitalia
B. Female gonads with male external genitalia
C. Sex between two males
D. Sex between one male and one female

Ans A

909. Reason behind secondary amenorrhea in polycystic ovarian disease is:
A. More Estrogen
B. More Progesterone
C. More Androgens
D. More FSH

Ans C

910. Hypomenorrhea refers to..........:
A. Menstruation occurs every alternate months
B. Failure of menses to occur by age 16 years
C. Infrequent or irregular ovulation
D. Abnormaly light menstrual periods

Ans D

911. Oligoovulation is............:
A. Had menstrual period and stop it for six months or more
B. Failure of menses to occur by age 16 years
C. Infrequent or irregular ovulation
D. Abnormally light menstrual periods

Ans C

912. primary amenorrhea is............?
A. Had menstrual period and stop it for six month
B. Failure of menses to occur by age 16 years
C. Infrequent or irregular ovulation
D. Abnormally light menstrual periods

Ans B

913. Trophoblastic tumor marker is..........:
A. HCG
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
D. FSH

Ans A

914. Correct regarding the use of veginal diaphragm is.............:
A. Introduce it just before ejaculation and remove - ejaculation
B. Addition of spermicidal jelly has no proved effectiveness
C. It should be introduced up to 3 hours before intercourse & is to be kept for at least 6 hours after
D. It should be introduced up to 3 hours before intintercourse and should be removed immediately after ejaculation

Ans C

915. Grapes are sour is the example of which defense mechanism ?
A. Rationalization
B. Reaction formation
C. Suppression
D. Identification

Ans A

916. Which of the following is not a disorder of consciousness?
A. Confusion
B. Hallucination
C. Coma
D. Stupor

Ans B

917. . Type of defense mechanism in which emotional feeling is transferred to objects who are less dangerous than those who initially aroused the emotions?
A. Conversion
B. Displacement
C. Transference
D. Substitution

Ans B

918. Garvida 2 mother with O negative blood whose husband's blood group is B positive comes to ANC clinic. Which among the following question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask?
A. How many ANC visit you had?
B. What is your LMP
C. Have you got RhoGAM injection during last delivery?
D. What is the age of your first child

Ans C

919. Disulfiram is prescribed for a patient with a problem related to alcohol. The nurse understand that this medication works on the principle of which of the following therapies?
A. Self control therapy
B. Milieu therapy
C. Aversion therapy
D. Desensitization

Ans C

920. Most commonly transmitting STD among female is.........:
A. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
B. Hepatitis B
C. Chlamydia
D. Syphilis

Ans C

921. Newborn is said to be anemic, if cord blood hemoglobin is less than:
A. 8 mg%
B. 10 mg%
C. 12 mg%
D. 14 mg%

Ans D

922. A client was admitted to a medical unit with acute blindness. Many tests are performed and three seems to be no organic reason why this patient cannot see. The nurse later learns that the patient become blind after witnessing a hit and run car accident. When a family of three was killed. The nurse suspects that the patient may be experiencing a:
A. Repression
B. Psychosis
C. Dissociative disorder
D. Conversion disorder

Ans D

923. The nurse employed in a psychiatric unit is as signed to care for a patient admitted to the unit 2 days ago. On review of the patient's record. The nurses notes that thee admission was an informal voluntary admission. Based on this type of admission, the nurse expects which of the following?
A. The patient will participate in the treat-ment plan
B. The patient will be angry and will refuse care
C. The patient will be very resistant to treat-ment measures.
D. The patient's family will be very resistant to treatment measures.

Ans A

924. A disorder in which attempt is made to counteract the effects of over eating by self induced vomiting, after period of starvation etc.
A. Hypermnesia
B. Anorexia nervosa
C. Bulimia nervosa
D. Anorexia

Ans C

925. In following which is not a characteristic of Disulfiram ethanol reaction:
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Hypotension
D. Headache

Ans B

926. The most important dependence produ-cing opoid derivates are -
A. Codeine and Papaverine
B. Heroine and Methadone
C. Morphine and Heroine
D. Pethidine and Nolaptrine

Ans C

927. A Neurotic disorder in which person
has two more personalities or which only one is being manifest at a time-
A. Dissociative identity disorder
B. Hysterical fits
C. Dissociative fugue
D. Dissociative Amnesia

Ans A

928. Tertiary prevention of mental retardation includes:
A. Autism
B. Immunization of children with DPT BCG, OPV and MMR
C. Increase Educational level
D. Early detection of presence of mental retardation

Ans C

929. Nursing care for improving sleep
pattern of schizophrenic patient include all Except-
A. Switch off main light
B. Provide calm and cool environment
C. Give a glass of hot milk before sleeping
D. Avoid day time activities

Ans D

930. Which of the following clinical manifestations suggests the presence of vulvo- vaginal candidiasis?
A. Mucoid diseharge and redness
B. Multiple ulcerative lesions with pruritus
C. Greenest yellow discharge and pruritus
D. Curdy discharge

Ans D

931. Early identification of cervical cancer can be done by:
A. HPV vaccine
B. Colposcopy
C. Pap smears
D. Ultrasonogram

Ans C

932. Which instrument used for dilatation of cervix during D and E procedure?
A. Manual vacuum aspiration syringe
B. karman's cannula
C. Laminaria tent
D. Uterine curette

Ans C

933. Highly contagious perinatal infection among the following:
A. Pneumococci pneumonia
B. Hepatitis B
C. HIV-AIDS
D. Herpes simplex virus

Ans D

934. Copper carrying contraceptive devices acts by:
A. Preventing ovulation
B. Prevent spermatozoa coming in contact with ovum
C. Destruction of spermatozoa
D. Making cervical mucus thick to prevent penetration of spermatozoa

Ans D

935. A pediatric patient is admitted after ingesting a bottle of vitamins with iron. emergency care would include treatment with-
A. Acetylcysteine
B. Deferoxamine
C. Calcium disodium acetate
D. British anti-lewisite

Ans B

936. Which of the following prenatal labora-tory test values would the nurse consider as significant?
A. Hemoglobin 12 mg/dl
B. Rubella titer 1:5
C. Blood pressure 120/80
D. Protein urea nill

Ans B

937. Which among the following is the poten-tially harmfull side effect of epidural anesth-esis?
A. Hypotension
B. Headache
C. Decreased urine output
D. Increased respiration

Ans A

940. Following delivery nurse suspect atonic PPH in the client. Which among the following is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Massage the uterus
C. Administer ergometrin
B. Administer 10 unit of oxytocin
D. Report to the doctor

Ans A

941. Polyhydroamniosis is a condition when the amniotic fluid volume exceeds more than .......... ml:
A. 1000
B. 1500
C. 2000
D. 2500

Ans C

942. Which technique is useful in assessing fetal position and presentation:
A. Pelvic exam
B. Leopold's maneuver
C. Ballottement
D. Abdominal percussion

Ans B

943. 38 week pregnant mother complaining of discomfort due to irregularly occurring contraction. The best advice by the nurse is...........:
A. Lie down in supine position
B. Take some warm drinks
C. Walk around
D. Take some analgesics

Ans C

944. Which among the following is the appropriate measure for reducing the breast tenderness in the first trimester of pregnancy?
A. Wash breast with warm water and keep it dry
B. Wear tight clothes to support the breast
C. Expose the breast to air 2 hourly
D. Wash with soap and water 4 hourly

Ans A

945. Seema at 24 week POG comes to ANC with complaining of edema in the legs, on examination her BP found to be 145/95 and urine suggestive of proteinuria, what will be the probable diagnosis?
A. Pregnancy induced hypertension
B. Pre eclampsia
C. Eelamopsia
D. Malignant hypertension

Ans B

946. Fundal grip helps to find out :
A. To know the fetal part at the fundus
B. To assess the degree of flextion or attitude
C. To have an idea what the fetal presenting part is
D. To know if engagement ocurred or not

Ans A

947. Which among the following is the chara-cteristic of postdate fetuses?
A. Slethargic and irritable
B. Areola is not pigmented
C. Desquamation of the epidermis
D. Vernix caseosa covering the body

Ans C

948. First antipsychotic drug chlorpromazine was discovered in ?
A. 1950
B. 1970
C. 1980
D. 1945

Ans A

949. Ravi, a 42 years old male is suffering from delusion, which of the following will be an accurate nursing action to Ravi ?
A. Isolate the patient
B. Provide ECT
C. Challenge the patient to prove the delusions
D. Do not challenge the patient to prove the delusions

Ans D

950. The international council of nurses (ICN) was established in the year-
A. 1869
B. 1899
C. 1928
D. 1905

Ans B

951. The nurse is caring for a patient with cancer who is neutropenic. Which plan would be inappropriate?
A. Notify the doctor of any temperature over 100°F
B. Use sterile technique when performing invasive procedures
C. Avoid any spicy foods
D. Avoid patient exposure to anyone who is ill

Ans C

952. A patient with cirrhosis is about to have a paracentesis for relief of Ascites. Which activity is essential prior to the procedure?
A. Administer thorough mouth care
B. Ask the patient to empty his bladder
C. Be sure his bowels have moved recently
D. Have the patient bath with betadine

Ans B

953. Which nursing intervention should take priority when caring for a patient with appendicitis?
A. Assessing for pain
B. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids
C. Providing discharge teaching
D. Assessing for signs and symptoms of peritonitis

Ans D

954. Which laboratory result woulad concern the nurse caring for a patient who is receiving "Furosemide (Lasix)" drug agent?
A. Potassium level - 2.5
B. Sodium level - 140
C. Glucose level - 110
D. Calcium level - 8

Ans A

955. The nurse is planning dietary changes for a patient following an episode of pancreatitis. Which diet is suitable for the patient?
A. Low calorie and low carbohydrate
B. High calorie and low fat
C. High protein and high fat
D. Low protein and high carbohydrate

Ans B

956. The nurse is admitting a patient with an antisocial personality disorder. The highest-priority assessment for this patient includes the patient's risk for:
A. Delirium
B. Hallucinations
C. Harming self or others
D. Substance abuse

Ans C

957. A patient with full thickness burn injury is scheduled for a skin graft. Which one of the following grafts is taken from an animal source?
A. Auto-graft
B. Iso-graft
C. Allo-graft
D. Xeno-graft

Ans D

958. A patient has ca tonsillectomy. Which is most appropriate for the nurse to encourage this patient to have during the first 24 hours after surgery?
A. Warm pudding
B. Milk shakes
C. Soft toast
D. Ice pops

Ans D

959. The disease which is known as "Father of Public Health" is -
A. Small pox
B. Rabies
C. Diphtheria
D. Cholera

Ans D

960. "Pus in the pleural cavity" is termed as-
A. Pleural effusion
B. Empyema
C. Emphysema
D. Pyorrhea

Ans B

961. T-Tube drainage is used after which surgery-
A. Lobectomy
B. Billroth I
C. Cholecystectomy
D. Ileostomy

Ans C

962. A patient with cryptorchidism is being seen at the infertility clinic. The nurse gives high priorty to including which of the follo-wing instructions:
A. Teaching testicular self-exam (TSE) due to risk for testicular cancer
B. Advising the patient to seek the assistance of a sex counselor
C. Avoiding the use of scrotal support devices
D. Avoiding strenuous activity

Ans A

963. The most significant early sign of liver cirrhosis is-
A. Peripheral edema
B. Ascities
C. Anorexia
D. Jaundice

Ans C

964. Which of the following condition shows "Snow Strom Appearance" in x-ray of lung-
A. Bagassosis
B. Byssinosis
C. Silicosis
D. Anthracosis

Ans C

965. The nurse is evaluating a patient who is 2 days post-crush injury to his right leg. Whi-ch symptom is a late indicator of compartment syndrome:
A. Sudden decrease in pain
B. Swelling in toes or fingers
C. Inability to move fingers or toes
D. Diminished distal pulses

Ans D

966. "Hypertensive Patient" require diet restriction in-
A. Protein
B. Sodium
C. Carbohydrate
D. All of the above

Ans B

967. "Fear of Pain" is referred as -
A. Aero-phobia
B. Agro-phobia
C. Algo-phobia
D. Xeno-phobia

Ans C

968. Ketonuria is found in patients with:
A. Nephritis
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Thyro-toxico-sis
D. Peptic ulcer

Ans B

969. Dose of vitamin-A prophylaxis for cont-rol blindness in children below six months is:
A. 1,00,000 IU
B. 2,00,000 IU
C. 3,00,000 IU
D. 4,00,000 IU

Ans A

970. Which is the drug of choice used for "Cardio-genic Shock"?
A. Noradrenaline drug
B. Dopamine
C. Salbutamol
D. None of the above

Ans B

971. The doctor has ordered 500 ml 5% dextrose to be administered for 5 hours. It should be administered using a burette set. The nurse has to set the drops per minute to deliver the appropriate amount. Calculate the flow rate:
A. 100 microdrops per minute
B. 80 microdrops per minute
C. 100 macrodrops per minute
D. 80 macrodrops per minute

Ans A

972. Duringa dressing change, inspection of the wound reveals what appears to be reddish pink tissue in the wound. The nurse interprets this as:
A. Exudate
B. Granulation tissue
C. Eschar
D. A sign of infection

Ans B

973. What should be added to normal saline which is connected to arterial line measuring invasive blood pressure:
A. Heparin
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Protamine sulphate

Ans A

974. Which of the following is not a mood stabilizing agent:
A. Fluoxetine
B. Lithium carbonate
C. Valproic acid
D. Clonazepam

Ans A

975. The term used to describe the discharges from the uterus during the puerperium and has an alkaline reaction is:
A. Vaginal discharge
B. Puerperal discharges
C. Amniotic secretions
D. Lochia

Ans D

976. A nurse in the labor room performing vaginal assessment on a pregnant client in labor and notes the presence of the umbilical cord protruding from uterus. What would be the initial nursing action:
A. Gently push the cord into the vagina
B. Place the client in Trendelenburg's position
C. Perform vaginal exam to note the presentation
D. Notify the staff that the client will be transported immediately to delivery room

Ans B

977. A phenomenon during therapeutic nurse client relationship when the client unconsciously attributes (or transfers) to the nurse feelings and behavioral predispositions formed towards a person from his or her past is:
A. Resistance
B. Boundary violation
C. Transference
D. Counter transference

Ans C

978. A patient in the emergency department has an endotracheal tube in place and is on the ventilator. His relative comes running to you telling you that the patient has pulled the tube out of his mouth. What would be your next step?
A. Apply face mask with high flow oxygen
B. Sit the patient up and consider chest physiotherapy to get the secretions out
C. Reinsert the tube immediately under sedation
D. Pull the tube out completely, bag and mask the patient and assess spontaneous breathing efforts

Ans D

979. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. The nurse will provide information to the client about which type of enema?
A. Oil retention
B. Return flow
C. High large volume
D. Low, small volume

Ans D

980. The nurse is most likely to report which finding to the primary care provider for a client who has an established colostomy?
A. The stoma extends 1/2 inch above the abdomen.
B. The skin under the appliance looks red briefly after removing the appliance.
C. The stoma color is a deep red purple.
D. An ascending colostomy just delivers liquid feces

Ans C

981. The nurse assesses a client's abdomen several days after abdominal surgery. It is firm, distended, and painful to palpate. The client reports feeling "bloated" the nurse consult with the surgeon, who orders an enema. The nurse prepares to give what kind of enema?
A. Soapsuds
B. Retention
C. Return flow
D. Oil retention

Ans C

982. Which of the following is most likely to validate that a cient is experiencing intestinal bleeding?
A. Large quantities of fat mixed with pale yellow liquid stool.
B. Brown, formed stool.
C. Semi soft tar colored stools.
D. Narrow, Pencil shaped stool

Ans C

983. A nurse determines that a fracture bedpan should be used for the patient who:
A. Has a spinal cord injury.
B. Is on bedrest.
C. Has dementia.
D. Is obese

Ans A

984. A patient with the diagnosis of diverticulosis is advised to eat a diet high in fiber. What should the nurse recommend that the patient eat to best increase the bulk and fecal material?
A. Whole wheat bread
B. White rice
C. Pasta
D. Kale

Ans D

985. MMR vaccine is administered at the age:
A. 3 month
B. 6 month
C. 15 month
D. 9 month

Ans C

986. For a infant suffering from mild diarrhea what is advised:
A. Antibiotics
B. Continue breast feeding
C. Stop breast feeding and give ORS
D. IVF administration

Ans B

987. A low birth weight baby is the baby whose birth weight is less than:
A. 1 kg
B. 1.5 kg
C. 2.5 kg
D. 2 kg

Ans C

988. Fast breathing in a child less than 2 month is diagnosed when respiratory rate is more than:
A. 30 b/m
B. 50 b/m
C. 40 b/m
D. 60 b/m

Ans D

989. Formula used to pediatric dosage of medication for children under the age of 1 year:
A. Clark's rule
B. Young's rule
C. Fried rule
D. Diling's rule

Ans C

990. Baby doubles its birth weight:
A. 9 month
B. 4 month
C. 7 month
D. 1 year

Ans B

991. A baby will be able to hold its head by:
A. 1 month
B. 3 month
C. 11 month
D. 9 month

Ans B

992. Children aged 1-3 years should have their weight checked once in:
A. 3 months
B. 4 months
C. 5 months
D. 6 months

Ans A

993. The common area for bleeding in a child with hemophlia will be:
A. Brain
B. Peritonium
C. Pericardium
D. Joint

Ans D

994. The basic emotional task for preschooler is:
A. Initiative
B. Industry
C. Independence
D. Trust

Ans A

995. Nurses primary observation a diabetic child admitted with Ketoacidosis would be:
A. Bradycardia
B. Hyperpnea
C. Hypertension
D. Bradypnea

Ans B

996. Sucralfate is used in the treatment of ..........
A. Fluid deficit
B. Peptic ulcer
C. Fluid overload
D. Peritonitis

Ans B

997. Breast milk is contraindicated in:
A. HIV Mother
B. Breast abscess
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

Ans C

998. Normal bone cell is known as:
A. Osteocyte
B. Osteoblast
C. Osteoclast
D. Monocyte

Ans A

999. Drug of choice for Ascariasis is:
A. Piperazine citerate
B. Bephenium Hydroxynaphthoate
C. Mebendazole
D. Albendazole

Ans C

1000. ASD Occurs due to the persistence of ........:
A. Mitral valve
B. Foramen ovale
C. Ductus arteriosus
D. Ductus venosus

Ans B


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