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RAKCON MSc Nursing entrance 2017 question paper
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Q.1 When Administering a parenteral Iron
preparation to the child, The nurse
should __?
A. Change needle after drawing the drug
into the syringe
B. Apply ice pack to the site after the
injection
C. Rotate Injections among the four
extremities
D. Firmly massage the site after
withdrawal of the needle
Q. 2 After administration of Mebendazole
(Vermox) to a 4 Year old child for pinworms, The Nurse should observe the child
for?
A. Convulsions
B. Punctuation
C. Worms in the stool
D. Hypertension
Q. 3 The primary reason for using
prednisone in the treatment of acute leukaemia in children is that it is able
to ___?
A. Decrease Inflammation
B. Reduce irradiation edema
C. Suppress mitosis in lymphocytes
D. Increase appetite and sense of well
being
Q. 4 An essential Nursing action when
caring for the small child with severe diarrhoea is to.?
A. Force fluid orally
B. Take Daily weight
C. Replace lost calories
D. Keep body temperature below 100'F
Q. 5 Chicken pox can sometimes be fatal to
children who are receiving ? A.
Antibiotics
B. Anticonvulsants
C. Steroids
D. Insulin
Q. 6 After closure of Newborn's
meningomyelocele it is essential that the Nursing care Includes?
A. Strict limitation of leg movement
B. Measurement of head Circumference daily
C. Decrease of environmental stimuli
D. Observation of serous drainage from the
nares
Q. 7 When teaching an insulin dependent
adolescent client about dietary management, The Nurse should instruct the
client to ___
A. Have the parent prepare for food
separately from the rest of the family
B. Always carry a concentrated form of
glucose
C. Eat all meals at home
D. Weigh all food on a gram Scale
Q. 8 A 6 year old girl begins thumb
sucking after surgery. This was not the
child's behavior preoperatively. The
Nurse should?
A. Distract her by playing crackers
B. Accept the thumb sucking
C. Report this behavior to the
physician
D. Tell her thumb sucking cause buckteeth
Q. 9 A10 month old is brought to the
emergency room for a head injury after falling down the stairs. An immediate CT Scan is ordered. In preparing
a 10 months old for CT Scan the nurse should__?
A. Shave the infants head
B. Administer prescribed sedative
C. Give the infant an explanation of the
procedure
D. Start the prescribed intravenous
infusion
Q. 10 To help parents cope with the
behavior of young school aged children, the nurse suggests that it could help
if they would ___?
A. Avoid asking specific questions
B. Be consistent and firm about
established rules
C. Write a list of expectations to avoid
confusion
D. Allow the child to set up his or her
own routines
Q. 11 In relation to obtaining an informed
consent from an adolescent, the nurse should be aware that the adolescent ___?
A. Is not able to make an acceptable or
intelligent choice
B. Does not have the legal capacity to
give consent
C. Will most likely be unable to choose
between alternatives when asked to consent
D. Is able to give voluntary consent when
parents are not available
Q. 12 Severe muscles wasting, growth
failure and lose of subcutaneous fat are features of ___?
A. Beri-Beri
B. Scurvy
C. Kwashiorkor
D. Marasmus
Q. 13 Committee which recommended multiple
purpose worker?
A. Mudaliar committee
B. Bhore committee
C. Kartar Singh committee
D. Shrivastava committee
Q. 14 Under certain circumstances the
virus that cause chicken pox can also cause?
A. Athlete's foot
B. Herpes Zoster
C. German measles
D. Infectious hepatitis
Q. 15 When Administering IV Fluids to a
small, dehydrated infant, the most critical factor confronting the nurse is the
___?
A. Assurance of sterility
B. Maintenance of the prescribed rate of
flow
C. Calculation of the total necessary
intake
D. Maintenance of the fluid at body
temperature
Q. 16 Aminophylline is to be given IV for
20 minutes every eight hours to a 20 months old hospitalized with severe
asthma. Before Administering the drug, the nurse should?
A. Check the infant's temperature
B. Administer Oxygen to the infant
C. Take the infants pulse & Monitor
the infant's B.P.
D. All of the Above
Q. 17 A 4 year old newly diagnosed with
leukemia is placed on bed rest. While assisting with morning care, the nurse
notes bloody expectorant after the child has brushed the teeth. The nurse should first?
A. Secure a smaller toothbrush for the
child's use
B. Record and report the incident without
alarming the child
C. Tell the child to be more Careful while
brushing the teeth
D. Rinse the child's mouth with half
strength hydrogen peroxide
Q. 18 Submerged portion of the iceberg
represents?
A. Diagnosed case
B. Clinical case
C. Dead case
D. Treated case
Q. 19 Vaccine that leaves permanent
scar?
A. Measles
B. BCG
C. DPT
D. MMR
Q. 20 Dengue fever is caused due to __?
A. Fungus
B. Bacteria
C. Virus
D. Protozoa
Q. 21 Oral polio vaccine is prepared
from?
A. Killed organism
B. Live attenuated organism
C. Toxoids
D. Aerobic bacteria
Q. 22 Most common method use for
identifying community health problems?
A. Lab tests
B. Camp
C. Survey
D. Health Education
Q. 23 Health immunity is not useful in
prevention of __?
A. Polio
B. Measles
C. Rubella
D. Tetanus
Q. 24 Administration of readymade
antibiotics is example of.?
A. Active immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Passive natural immunity
D. Active natural immunity
Q. 25 The constant presence of a disease
or infection within a given geographic area is called as?
A. Epidemic
B. Endemic
C. Pandemic
D. Sporadic
Q. 26 ASHA workers performance is
monitored through?
A. Number of deliveries attended
B. Number of visits
C. Reduction of IMR
D. Number of training hours attended
Q. 27 When was the first round of pulse
polio programme started ?
A. December 1994
B. January 1994
C. December 1995
D. November 1996
Q. 28 Site of BCG Vaccination is?
A. Left thigh
B. Left Deltoid
C. Right Deltoid
D. Right thigh
Q. 29 Hepatitis A infection is __?
A. Air borne disease
B. Fecal oral route borne disease
C. Blood borne disease
D. Droplet borne disease
Q. 30 Zoonotic Disease is __?
A. Malaria
B. Rubella
C. Rabies
D. Diphtheria
Q. 31 The drug used by Health workers in
the management of acute respiratory illness is ?
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Benzyl penicillin
C. Gentamycin
D. Cotrimoxazole
Q. 32 Which is the most appropriate time
for IUD Insertion?
A. During or within 10 Days of
menstruation
B. Just before menstruation
C. Five days after menstruation
D. During mid period of menstrual
cycle
33 WHO ORS Packet includes all
EXCEPT?
A. Potassium chloride
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Sodium chloride
D. Sodium bicarbonate
Q. 34 Measures taken to prevent occurrence
of disease?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. All of the Above
Q. 35 Who was the chairman of health
survey and planning committee? A. AL
Mudaliar
B. AK Mukherjee
C. MS Chadha
D. Joseph Bhore
Q. 36 The procedure of removal and
ligation of fallopian tube is referred as?
A. Mastectomy
B. Tubectomy
C. Laparotomy
D. Vasectomy
Q. 37 Primary health center covers a
population of __?
A. 5000
B. 10000
C. 30000
D. 70000
Q. 38 A table that shows how often
different score appear in a set of score is called.?
A. Normal curve
B. Distribution
C. Histogram
D. Polygon
Q. 39 Number of New cases that occurs with
in a specific population within defined time interval is __?
A. Point prevalence
B. Lifetime prevalence
C. Incidence
D. Period prevalence
Q. 40 Sand-fly transmits?
A. Kala Azar
B. Enteric fever
C. Chagas disease
D. Bubonic plague
Q. 41 Communicable disease eradicated from
India is __?
A. Rubella
B. Rabies
C. Chicken pox
D. Small pox
Q. 42 Hook worm enters the body through
__?
A. Feco oral route
B. Respiratory tract
C. Through skin
D. Reproductive tract
Q. 43 Dose given for vitamin A deficiency
prophylaxis is?
A. 1.5 Lac IU
B. 2 Lac IU
C. 2.5 Lac IU
D. 30000 IU
Q. 44 Expected weight of a child at one
year whose birth weight was 3.5 Kg.?
A. 12.5 kg
B. 11.5 kg
C. 10.5 kg
D. 7.5 kg
Q. 45 The sum of the values of a variable
for set of observations divided by number of observations refers to __?
A. Median
B. Mode
C. Standard deviation
D. Mean
Q. 46 Reliability of a tool includes
following features EXPECT?
A. Equivalence
B. Efficiency
C. Internal consistency
D. Stability
Q. 47 Which is the responsibility of state
Nursing Council?
A. Formulation of objectives of Nursing
care
B. Transfer of Nursing staff
C. Preparation of job description of
Nursing staff
D. Implementation of INC standard of
Nursing Education
Q. 48 The degree of consistency with which
an instrument measure the attributes it is supposed to measure?
A. Objectivity
B. Reliability
C. Sensitivity
D. Validity
Q. 49 Which is not the element of
communication.?
A. Sender
B. Channel
C. Massage
D. Attention
Q. 50 Which is the example of one way
communication.?
A. Class lecture
B. Television lesson
C. Workshop
D. Group discussion
Q. 51 To prevent foot drop in a patient
with Buck's Traction, the Nurse should
___?
A. Ensure proper body positioning
B. Teach the client isometric
exercises
C. Place pillows under the client's heals
D. Tuck the sheets into foot of the bed
Q. 52 A comatose patient is at risk for
the development of pressure Ulcers, Therefore the nurse should include which of
the following activity in the plan of care.?
A. Wash skin with soap and water
frequently
B. Establish an individualized turning
schedule
C. Use donut-shaped cushion on the sacral
region
D. Massage red areas on bony prominences
regularly
Q. 53 A Nurse is teaching a new
hemodialysis patient. Hemodialysis is successful in the treatment of ESRD.
Because it __?
A. Restores renal endocrine function
B. Mimics renal function
C. Restores urinary ability
D. Improves immune function
Q. 54 Using the Rule of Nine, the Nurse determines the percentage of the
body burnt, a client with both arms burnt to be __?
A. 1%
B. 9%
C. 18%
D. 36%
Q. 55 Which intervention is appropriate
for a patient with skeletal traction?
A. Pin care
B. Intermittent weights
C. Prone positioning
D. 5 lb weight limit
Q. 56 A patient has undergone an endoscopy
of the upper GI tract. The Nursing care plan should include which of the
following.?
A. Administering analgesics for pain
B. Observing the client for rectal
bleeding
C. Withholding foods until a gag reflex is
present
D. Positioning the client on the right
side
Q. 57 Nursing care for a patient with an
arteriovenous (AV) Fistula aimed at maintaining patency Includes.?
A. Taking BP in the affected area
B. Palpating for a bruit
C. Keeping the arm free of constriction
D. Applying heat to maintain
circulation
Q. 58 A Nurse is assigned to care of group
of clients. On the review of the client
Medical records the nurse determines that which client is at risk for fluid
volume excess.?
A. The client on diuretics
B. The client with ileostomy
C. The client on GI suctioning
D. The client with renal failure
Q. 59 A Nurse plans care for client with
COPD knowing that the client is most likely to experience what type of acid
base balance.?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Respiratory Alkalosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Q. 60 Which of the following arterial
blood gas values is consistent with metabolic acidosis.?
A. Bicarbonate 16 mEq/L
B. PaCO2 48 mm of Hg
C. PH 7.35
D. SpO2 90%
Q. 61 After 48 hours, Successful fluid
resuscitation of a burn victim can be evaluated by __?
A. Weight
B. Urine Output
C. Urine specific gravity
D. Peripheral perfusion
Q. 62 An end stage AIDS Client required
suctioning when performing this task the nurse is correct to wear.?
A. A mask and eye protection
B. Sterile gloves and eye protection
C. A mask and sterile gloves
D. A mask, eye protection and sterile
gloves
Q. 63 A Nurse is caring for client who has
been taking diuretics on long term basis. A fluid volume deficit is suspected.
Which assessment finding would be noted in a client with this condition.?
A. Rales
B. CVP
C. BP
D. Hematocrit
Q. 64 The most common cause of retinal
detachment is ___?
A. Trauma
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Brain tumor
D. Degenerative changes in the retina and
vitreous
Q. 65 A client with cancer is receiving
chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia. A Nurse identifies which
intervention as the highest priority in the Nursing care plan.?
A. Ambulation three times daily
B. Monitoring for pathological
fractures
C. Monitoring the platelet count
D. Monitoring temperature
Q. 66 To which collaborative health care
team member should the nurse refer the client the late stages of Myasthenia
Gravis.?
A. Occupational therapist
B. Vocational Therapist
C. Speech Therapist
D. Recreational Therapist
Q. 67 A Nurse is preparing to care for
parent with a potassium (K) deficit the nurse reviews the patient's record and
determines that the client is at risk for developing the K deficit because of
the client.?
A. Is on K sparing diuretics
B. Is on Nasogastric suction
C. Has history of Addison's disease
D. Has history of renal disease
Q. 68 A Nurse is changing the central line
dressing of a patient receiving TPN. She notes that the catheter insertion site
appears reddened. The nurse next assesses which of the following.?
A. Expiration date on the bag
B. Tightness of tubing connections
C. Clients temperature
D. Time of the last dressing change
Q. 69 The nurse is preparing to hang fat
emulsion. The nurse notes that fat globules are visible at the top of the
solution. The nurse takes which of the following Actions.?
A. Roll the bottle of solution
vigorously
B. Obtains a different bottle of solution
C. Shakes the bottle of solution
gently
D. Runs the bottle of solution under warm
water
Q. 70 A patient has just undergone
insertion of Central Venous Catheter at the bedside. A Nurse would be sure to
check the results of which of the following before increasing the flow rate of
the IV solution attached to the line.?
A. Serum electrolyte
B. Portable Chest X-Ray
C. Serum Osmolality
D. Intake Output Chart
Q. 71 A Nurse is Assisting a physician
with the removal of chest tube. The nurse most appropriately instructs the
patient to ___?
A. Stay very still
B. Inhale and Exhale Quickly
C. Perform Valsalva Maneuver
D. Exhale as the tube is pulled out
Q. 72 A Nurse is caring for a patient who
goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which should the nurse implement
first.?
A. Call a code immediately
B. Begin chest compressions
C. Assess the pulse of a patient
D. Continue to monitor the client
Q. 73 Which Laboratory data confirms the
diagnosis of congestive heart failure.?
A. Chest X-Ray
B. Beta Type Natriuretic peptide (BNP)
C. LFT
D. BUN
Q. 74 Which Assessment data would the
nurse assess in the client diagnosed with Gullian Barre syndrome.?
A. Cogwheel rigidity and inability to
initiate voluntary movement
B. An exaggerated starle reflex and memory
changes
C. Progressive ascending paralysis of the
lower extremities and numbness
D. Sudden severe unilateral facial pain
and inability to chew
Q. 75 The patient comes to the clinic and
is diagnosed with otitis media. Which intervention should the clinic Nurse
include in the discharge teaching.?
A. Encourage the client to Apply cold
packs to the affected ear
B. Instruct the client not to take any over
the counter pain medication
C. Wear a protective earplug in affected
ear
D. Tell the client to call the HCP if an
abrupt relief of ear pain occurs
Q. 76 The patient is Diagnosed with
Glaucoma. Which symptom would the nurse Expect the client to report.?
A. A yellow haze around everything
B. Halos around lights
C. A curtain coming across vision
D. Floating spots in the vision
Q. 77 Which referral would be most
important for the client with permanent hearing loss.?
A. Aural rehabilitation
B. Speech Therapist
C. Social worker
D. Vocational rehabilitation
Q. 78 The nurse find the patient
unresponsive on the floor on bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement
first.?
A. Check the client for breathing
B. Shake the client and shout
C. Assess the carotid artery for
pulse
D. Call a code via the bathroom call light
Q. 79 The nurse is caring for a patient
diagnosed with COPD. Which data would warrant immediate intervention by the
Nurse.?
A. The patient's pulse oximeter reading is
92%
B. The patients arterial blood gas level
is 74
C. The patient's sputum is rusty colored
D. The patient has SOB when walking to the
bathroom
Q. 80 Which type of precaution should the
nurse implement to protect from being exposed to any of the hepatitis
viruses.?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Standard precautions
D. Exposure precautions
Q. 81 What is the priority problem in the
client diagnosed with congestive heart failure.?
A. Fluid volume overload
B. Decreased cardiac output
C. Knowledge deficit
D. Activity intolerance
Q. 82 Which type of precautions should the
nurse implement for the patient diagnosed with septic meningitis.?
A. Contact precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Standard precautions
Q. 83 The patient diagnosed with atrial
fibrillation has experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which
medication would the nurse anticipated being ordered for the patient on
discharge.?
A. A. Beta blocker medication
B. An oral anticoagulant medication
C. A thrombolytic medication
D. An anti hyperuricemic medication
Q. 84 A patient diagnosed with a
subarachnoid hemorrhage has undergone a craniotomy for repair of a ruptured
aneurysm. Which intervention will the intensive care Nurse implement.?
A. Administer a stool softener BID
B. Monitor neurological status every
shift
C. Encourage the client to cough hourly
D. Maintain the dopamine drip to keep BP
at 160/90
Q. 85 Which medication should the nurse
Expect the health care provider to order for a patient diagnosed with arterial
occlusive disease.? A. An Anti-coagulant
medication
B. An Anti-platelet medication
C. A muscle relaxant
D. An antihypertensive medication
Q. 86 The following methods can be used to
identify training needs EXCEPT ___
A. Professional standards
B. Job Description
C. Employee surveys
D. Job analysis
Q. 87 Which of the following data
indicates whether high quality care is being maintained.?
A. Audit
B. Quality indicators
C. Key indicators
D. Quality assurances
Q.
88 Which type of patient’s assignment needs specific personnel.?
A. Patient method
B. Team method
C. Functional method
D. None of these
Q. 89 Which of the following is the process
by which the manager assigns specific duties.?
A. Coordination
B. Delegation
C. Supervision
D. Communteation
Q. 90 Functional Nursing is a method of
providing.?
A. Equipment care
B. Patient care
C. Case management
D. Care of records
Q. 91 Which of the following is the most
managerial issue in emergency case.?
A. Inadequate Staff
B. Security
C. Triage
D. Inadequate supply
Q. 92 Supervisors have several roles to
play. Which of the following is not among the roles a supervisor plays.?
A. Coach to employees
B. Informing employees regarding
organizational policies
C. Authoritative
D. Mentor to employees
Q. 93 What could be a factor that hinders
the smooth running of the team process.?
A. An effective team leader
B. Objectives that are easily
achievable
C. Everyone focused on the project
D. Team member having problems
Q. 94 Postpartum hemorrhage is loss of
blood which is more than ___? A. 900 ml
B. 500 ml
C. 800 ml
D. 100 ml
Q. 95 In fetal blood vessels, where is the
oxygen content highest.?
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Ductus Arteriosus
C. Ductus Venous
D. Umbilical Artery
Q. 96 The type of hospital patient care
assignment which requires giving complete Nursing care to a specific number and
category of patient during the scheduled duty hours.?
A. Functional assignment
B. Organizational Nursing
C. Team Nursing
D. Individual care assignment
Q. 97 The type of Nursing care assignment
is best suited in an intensive care unit.?
A. Case method
B. Primary care method
C. Team method
D. Functional method
Q. 98 What is the normal color of the
amniotic fluid when the bag of water ruptures.?
A. As like water
B. Bluish
C. Yellowish
D. Brownish
Q. 99 Which of the following measures would
the nurse include in the teaching plan about the method to prevent breast
engorgement in post-partum period.?
A. Decreasing fluid intake for the first
24 to 48 hours
B. Breastfeeding neonate at frequently
intervals
C. Wearing a supportive brassiere with
nipple Shields
D. Feeding the neonate a maximum of 5
minutes per side on first day
Q. 100 Which of the following can lead to
greenish discoloration of the amniotic fluid.?
A. Lanugo
B. Hydramnios
C. Vernix
D. Meconium
Q. 101 To promote comfort during labor,
Nurse advices a client to assume certain positions and avoid other. Which
position may cause maternal hypotension and fetal hypoxia.?
A. Lateral position
B. Supine position
C. Standing position
D. Squatting position
Q. 102 In which condition, the umbilical
cord is attached to the margins of placenta.?
A. Placenta membranacra
B. Battledore placenta
C. Circumvallate placenta
D. Velamentous placenta
Q. 103 What is positive signs of
pregnancy.?
A. Frequency of urination
B. Fetal outline by sonography
C. Braxton hicks contraction
D. Vomiting and headache
Q. 104 According to WHO when should the
mother start breastfeeding her infant.?
A. Within 18 hours after birth
B. Within 30 Minutes after birth
C. After infants condition stabilizes
D. Within a day after birth
Q. 105 An Important landmark of the pelvis
that determines the distance of the descent of the Head is known as.?
A. Sacrum
B. Ischial spines
C. Ischial tuberosities
D. Linea terminalis
Q. 106 Monitoring Contractions is very
important during labor. To monitor the uterine Contractions, what should the
nurse do.?
A. Offer ice chips to the woman
B. Spread the fingers lightly over the
fundus to monitor the contraction
C. Instruct the client take note of the
duration of her contraction
D. Observe for the client's facial
expressions to know that the contraction has started or stopped
Q. 107 The peak point of uterine
contraction is called.?
A. Deceleration
B. Axiom
C. Acme
D. Acceleration
Q. 108 Nurse Rashmi is aware that the
labor is divided into how many stages.?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Q. 109 The indication of forceps delivery
is __?
A. Delay in second stage due to hypotonic
uterine contraction
B. Delay in first stage due to hypotonic
uterine contraction
C. Delay in first stage due to hypertonic
uterine contraction
D. Delay in second stage due to hypertonic
uterine contraction
Q. 110 Which of the following fetal
positions is most favorable for birth.?
A. Vertex
B. Oblique lie
C. Frank breech presentation
D. Posterior position of the Head
Q. 111 Which of the following condition is
common to pregnant clients in the second trimester of pregnancy.?
A. Breast abscess
B. Physiological Anemia
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
Q. 112 During a regular prenatal visit, A
pregnant client reports heartburn. To minimize her discomfort, Nurse should
include which suggestions in the plan of care.?
A. Drink more citrus juice
B. Limit fluid intake sharply
C. Take sodium bicarbonate
D. Eat small frequent meals
Q. 113 When is the best time to achieve
pregnancy.?
A. 14 days before the next period is
expected
B. 14 Days after the beginning of
period
C. Midway between 7 to 8th day of
Ovulation
D. Immediately after starting of menses
Q.114 Which of the following factors might
result in a decreased supply of breast milk in a postpartum mother.?
A. Maternal diet high in vitamin C
B. Supplemental feedings with formula
C. An alcoholic drinks
D. Frequent feeding
Q. 115 Charu is hospitalized for the
treatment of severe preeclampsia. Which of the following represents an unusual
finding for this condition.? A.
Generalized edema
B. Convulsions
C. Proteinuria 4+
D. Blood pressure of 160/110
Q. 116 Seven weeks after the conception
the growing structure inside a uterus is now called.?
A. Neonate
B. Zygote
C. Embryo
D. Fetus
Q.
117 True labor is characterized by ____?
A. Suprapubic discomfort at regular
intervals
B. Effacement and dilatation of
cervix
C. Painful uterine contraction
D. All of the Above
Q. 118 Aspermia is a term used to
describe.?
A. Decrease of semen
B. Absence of sperm
C. Occurrence of abnormal sperm
D. Increase in semen
Q. 119 Which of the following would the
nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy.?
A. Goodell's sign
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Cervical Effacement
D. Positive serum pregnancy test
Q. 120 Neonates born to woman infected
with Hepatitis B should undergo.?
A. Hepatitis B vaccine at birth and 1
month
B. Hepatitis B immune globulin within 12
hours of birth, hepatitis B vaccine at birth, 1 month and 6 months
C. Hepatitis B immune globulin at birth,
no hepatitis vaccine
D. Hepatitis B immune globulin within 48
hours of birth and hepatitis B vaccine at 1st month
Q. 121 Oxytocin causes all EXCEPT __
A. Myoepithelial cell contraction
B. Contraction of uterine muscles
C. Lactogenesis
D. Milk ejection
Q. 122 A Nurse is caring for a 16 year old
pregnant client. The client is taking an iron supplements. What should this
client drink to increase the absorption of iron.?
A. A liquid antacid
B. A glass of orange juice
C. A glass of milk
D. A cup of hot tea
Q. 123 The permanent cessation of
menstruation is called.?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Oligomenorrhea
C. Hypomenorrhea
D. Menopause
Q. 124 In A lady having a regular 28 Days
menstrual cycle, what is the safe period.?
A. First and last seven days
B. Initial 28 Days
C. Later 14 days
D. First seven days
Q. 125 Which one of the following is the
ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart disease.?
A. E-Pills
B. Oral contraceptive pills
C. Depo-Provera
D. IUCD
Answers
1.C 2.C 3.A 4.B 5.C 6.B 7.B
8.B 9.D 10.B 11.B 12.C 13.C 14.B
15.B 16.C 17.B 18.A 19.B 20.C 21.B
22.C 23.D 24.B 25.B 26.B 27.C 28.B
29.B 30.C 31.D. 32.C 33.B 34.A 35.A
36.B 37.C 38.B 39.C 40.A 41.D 42.C
43.B 44.C 45.D 46.B 47.D 48.B 49.D
50.B 51.A 52.B 53.B 54.C 55.A 56.C
57.C 58.D 59.A 60.A 61.B 62.D 63.B
64.B 65.C 66.C 67.B 68.C 69.B 70.B
71.C 72.B 73.B 74.C 75.D 76.B 77.A
78.B 79.C 80.C 81.B 82.A 83.B 84.A
85.B 86.B 87.B 88.C 89.B 90.B 91.B
92.C 93.D 94.B 95.C 96.D 97.B 98.A
99.B 100.D 101.B 102.B 103.B 104.B 105.B
106.B 107.C 108.C 109.A 110.A 111.B 112.D
113.A 114.B 115.B 116.C 117.D 118.B 119.B
120.B 121.C 122.B 123.D 124.A 125.A
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