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SREE CHITRA TIRUNAL INSTITUTE FOR MEDICAL SCIENCES & TECHNOLOGY Staff Nurse question paper 2013
Answers & PDF link is there at the end of this paper
1. While giving Cardiopulmonary
resuscitation to an adult, the recommended rate of external chest compression
per minute is
A. 60
B. 72
C. 80
D. 100
2. The 'p' wave in the EGG represents
A. Depolarization of Atria.
B. Repolarisation of Atria.
C. Contraction of Atria.
D. Relaxation of Atria.
3. Which one of the following is not a
thrombolytic drug?
A. Heparin
B. Urokinase
C. Tissue Plasminogen Activator
D. Streptokinase
4. Which one of the following is less
likely to be given to a patient having acute Myocardial Infarction?
A. Morphine
C. Aspirin
B. Oxygen
D. Digoxin
5. Which one of the following arrhythmias
needs to be defibrillated immediately?
A. Ventricular Asystole
C. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Atrlal fibrillation
D. Pulseless Electrical Activity
6. The nurse is preparing to administer
0.1 mg of Digoxin intravenously. Theavailable concentration is 0.5mg in 2ml.
How many milliliters should the nurseadminister?
A. 0.5 ml
C. 0.3 ml
B. 0.4 ml
D. 0.2 ml
7. Which of the following statements is
true regarding endotracheal suctioning?
A. Suction vacuum is set as high as
possible.
B. Normal Saline should be instilled prior
to the procedure.
C. Most patients do not need hyper oxygenation
during the procedure.
D. Suction time should not exceed 10-15
seconds.
8. Immediate Post procedure care for the
cardiac catheterization patient includesall of the following except
A. Continually monitoring
B. Monitoring platelet count
C. Monitoring hemostasis.heart rate.
D. Monitoring coagulation status.
9. The onset of action in minutes, after
intravenous administration of Furosemide(Lasix) is
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 20
10. The drug of choice in Status
epilepticus is .
A. Lorazepam
B. Midazolam
C. Phenytoin
D. Phenobarbitone
11. Insulin is not given by mouth because
it is
A. Excreted before being absorbed
B. Absorbed too slowly
C. Too irritating to stomach and mucous
membrane.
D. Rendered inactive
12. Which one of the following is wrong
about Thrombolytic therapy? It is
A. a treatment modality for acute ischemic
stroke
B. an emergency treatment in cerebral
aneurysm
C. most effective if given within 3 hours
of onset of symptoms
D. usually given after a CT Scan of brain
13. Interventions to decrease increased
intracranial pressure include all of thefollowing except
A. Inj.Mannitol
B. Hyperventilation
C. Inj. Dexamethasone
D. Neutral neck position
14. The preferred position to prevent CSF
leak after pituitary tumor excision viatranssphenoidal route is
A. Prone
B. Semi-Fowler's
C. Supine
D. Left lateral
15. If a patient experienced a stroke that
damaged the hypothalamus, the nursewould anticipate that he has problems with ?
A. body temperature control
B. balance and equilibrium
C. visual acuity
D. thinking and reasoning
16. The four body fluids that have been
implicated in the transmission of HIV are
A. Blood, saliva, semen, vaginal fluid
B. Tears, saliva, urine, sweat
C. Blood, semen, vaginal fluid, breast
milk
D. Urine, semen, vaginal fluid, breast
milk
17. A frequent side effect of Furosemide
is that it
A. Promotes electrolyte disturbances.
B. Allows the kidney to retain hydrogen
ions.
C. Permits the kidney to conserve
potassium.
D. Promotes conservation of calcium.
18. Fresh Frozen plasma (FFP) is administered
to replace
A. Clotting factors
B. Erythrocytes
C. Leukocytes
D- Platelets
19. A patient who has been experiencing
angina has a new prescription forNitroglycerin. Which of the following should
the nurse include in teaching aboutthe side effects of Nitroglycerin?
A. Head ache
B. Shortness of breath
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypertension
20. While caring for a patient with acute
pulmonary oedema which of the following isnot advisable?
A. IV Fluids
B. Diuretics
C. Propped up position
D. Reducing anxiety
21. A nurse should teach a patient to
withhold the prescribed dose of digoxin if thepatient experiences'
A. Breathlessness
B. chest pain
C. visual disturbance
D. increased urinary output
22. When a patient is receiving
anti-coagulants the nursing care should includeobservation for
A. nausea
B. headache
C. epistaxis
D. chest pain
23. A nurse should infuse blood products
to a patient within 4 to 6 hours in order tolessen the risk of
A. bacterial contamination
B. thrombus formation
C. febrile reaction
D. platelet aggregation
24. The nurse in the coronary care unit
should observe for one of the most commonacute complications of myocardial
infarction which is
A. Hypokalemia B. Anaphalatic shock
C. Cardiac dysrhythmia
D. Cardiac enlargement
25. The purpose of water in water seal
chamber of a chest drainage system is to —
A. foster removal of chest secretion
B. prevent the entrance of air into the
pleural cavity
C. facilitate emptying of bloody drainage
from the chest
D. decrease the danger of sudden change of
pressure within the tube
26. Which of the following drug is to be
given when warfarin overdose is observed
A. Heparin
B. Vitamin K
C. Protamine sulphate
D. Iron -dextran
27. Mr X developed Quadriplegia following
a diving accident. The most likely causes
A. C4 injury
B. TS injury
C. L3 injury
D. T6injury
28. Which of the following clinical
manifestations would support a nursing diagnosisto decreased cardiac output?
A. Cool, moist skin
B. Bouncing peripheral pulses
C. Increased urinary output
D. Diminished breath sounds
29. When performing cardiac compression on
an adult client, the nurse is aware that it is essential to exert vertical
downward pressure, which depresses, the lowersternum at least:
A. 1/2 to 3/4 inch
B. 3/4 to 1 inch
C. 1 to 1/2 inches
D. 11/2 to 2 inches
30. What should be the air pressure in
operating rooms in relation to the outside airpressure?
A. Lesser
B. Greater
C. Equal
D. No relation
31. All of these are common indications
for indwelling urinary catheters in healthcaresettings EXCEPT
A. Urethral or pelvic floor trauma.
B, Palliative care during end of life.
C. Management of urinary retention and
obstruction.
D. Prevention of wound deterioration due
to urinary incontinence.
32. Ventilator Associated Pneumonia.
prevention bundle includes all EXCEPT
A. Semi recumbent position
B. Prophylactic antibiotic therapy
C. Daily sedation vacation,
D. Frequent drainage of subglottic
secretion
33. Ventilator associated pneumonia is
defined as pneumonia that develops
A. after five days of intuation and
ventilation
B. after 48 hours of intubation and
ventilation
C. anytime after intubation
D. None of the above
34. World Hand Hygiene Day is observed on
A. 5th May
B. 7th April
C. 1st 'December
D. 30th October
35. Most important step in clinical waste
management is
A. Segregation
B.
Transportation
C. Storage30
D. Labeling
36. To achieve high-level disinfection in
2% gluteraldehyde, soak an instrument for
A. 30 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. one hour
37. Select 'the weaning mode with
ventilator' from the following
A. IPPV
B. CMV
C. SIMV
D. PEEP
38. The single most
effective means for preventing healthcare associated infection is
A. Periodic Fumigation
B. Prophylactic Antibiotic therapy
C. Use of personal protective equipment
D. Hand Hygiene
39. The recommended initial monophasic
energy dose for cardioversion ofVentricular Fibrillation is
A. 360
B. 200
C. 150
D. 100
40. Lumbar puncture is done at the level
of
A. L3-L4
B. L1-L2
C. L4-L5
D. T12-L1
41. The nurse is caring for a patient with
raised intra cranial pressure.Which of thefollowing trends in vital signs is
applicable here?
A. Increasing temperature, increasing
pulse,, increasing respiration,decreasing blood pressure
B. Increasing temperature, decreasing
pulse,, decreasing respiration,increasing blood pressure
C. Decreasing temperature, decreasing
pulse ,increasing respiration,decreasing blood pressure
D. Decreasing temperature, increasing
pulse, decreasing respiration,increasing blood pressure
42. In autoclaving the water temperature
can be raised to much higher degree by—
A. Adding chemicals
B. Using filtered water
C. Increasing pressure.
D. All of the above.
43. The nurse is assessing the adaptation
of the patient to changes in the functionalstatus after a stroke. The nurse
determines that the patient is adapting mostsuccessfully if the patient
A. gets angry with family if they
interrupt a task
B. Experiences bouts of depression and
irritability
C. has difficulty with using modified
feeding utensils
D. Consistently uses adaptive equipments
in dressing self
44. The nurse would suspect a patient
after craniotomy is developing meningitis ifthe patient exhibits
A. Negative kernig sign
B. absence of nuchal rigidity
C. positive brudinski sign
D. Glasgow coma scale of 15
45. Antibiotic prophylaxis before surgery
is to be administered
A. 120 mts prior to incision
B. 60 mts prior to incision
C. Just before incision
D. 120 mts prior to shifting patient to OT
46. The preferred position in which a
patient with increased intracranial pressure tobe placed is
A. Supine
B. Trendelenberg
C. Lithotomy
D. Head tilted to 30
47. A nurse has received the patient
assignment for the day. Which among thefollowing patient should the nurse
assess first?
A. The patient who has a nasogastric tube
attached to intermittent suction
B. The patient who has to receive
subcutaneous insulin before breakfast
C. The patient who is 2 days post
operative and is complaining ofincissional pain
D. The patient who has a blood glucose
level of 50 mg per dilution andcomplaints of blurred vision
48. MRI study is prescribed for a patient
with a suspected brain tumour. The nurseimplements which action to prepare the
patient for this test?
A. IV manitol for 6 hours before the
procedure
B. Shaves the groin for insertion of
femoral catheter
C. Removes all metal containing objects
from the patient
D. Instructs the patient in inhalation
technique for the administration of aradio isotope .
49. The nurse is teaching a patient who
has iron deficiency anaemia about food sheshould include in her diet. The nurse
determines that the patient understands thedietary modification if she selects
which of the following menu.
A.
Nuts
B. Milk
C- Boiled Rice
D. Dark green leafy vegetables
50. A patient has experienced acute
pulmonary embolism. The nurse assesses forwhich symptom which is most commonly
reported
A. Hot flushed feeling
B. Sudden chills and fever suddenly
C. Chest pain that occurs
D. Occipital headache
51. A nurse performs the admission
assessment for a patient with diagnosis oftuberculosis. The nurse receives the
results of which diagnostic test that willconfirm the diagnosis
A. Chest X-ray
B.
Bronchoscopy
C.
Sputum examination
D. Tuberculin test
52. A patient is taking Isoniazid for one
and a half months. The patient complaints ofnumbness,paresthesia and tinkling
in the extremities. Here the patient isexperiencing
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Peripheral neuritis
C. Small blood vessel spasm
D- Impaired peripheral circulation
53. A patient has been started on long
term therapy with Rifampicin. The nurseteaches the patient that the medication
A. Should always be taken with food or
antacid
B. Should be double dosed if one dose is
forgotten
C. Causes orange discoloration of
sweat,tears,urine and faeces
D. May be discontinued independently if
symptoms are gone in 3 months
54. 1000 ml of normal saline is to be
infused over 12 hours. The drop factor is 15drops/ml. The flow rate should be
set at how many drops / minute?
A. 10 drops/minute
B. 15 drops/minute
C. 21 drops / minute
D. 30 drops/minute.
55. The nurse determines that a patient is
having a transfusion reaction. After thetransfusion is stopped which action
should immediately be taken?
A. Remove the l/V line
B. Run a solution of 5%
C. Run normal saline
D. Obtain a culture of the tip of
thedextrose catheter
56. Which of the following is the most
prevalent risk factor in the development ofCatheter Associated Urinary Tract
Infections?
A. Female gender
B. Increasing age
C. Prolonged catheterization
D. Catheter-care violations
57. Kussmaul's breathing is manifested as
A. regular but abnormally slow Respiration
B. Orthopnoeic with excessive perspiration
C. Normal with rapid rate
D. Abnormally deep with rapid rate
Respiration
58. Triage means
A. prioritizing
B. Asessing
C. planning
D. Evaluating
59. Cine Angiography Dye contains
A. Iodine
B. Sodium
C. Iron
D. Titanium
60. When performing Heimlich maneuver on a
conscious adult patient theRescuever delivers inward and upward thrust
specifically
A. Above the umbilicus
B. At th level of xyphoid process
C. Over the victims mid umbilical area
D. below the Xiphoid process and above the
umbilicus
61 .Common manifestation of acute left
ventricular failure is
A. Dependent edema
B. Dyspnoea and cough with frothy sputum
C. Increased Urine output
D. Sudden loss of consciousness
62.CPR Guideline(2010) recommends that on
diagnosis of cardiac arrest, the first action to be initiated is
A. give two breaths and initiate chest
compressions and respiration at 30:2 ratio
B. intiate chest compressions and
respiration at 30.2 ratio
C. start mouth to mouth respiration
D. give 4 breaths and start chest
compressions and respiration at 30.2 ratio
63. Ideal position to prevent aspiration
during nasogastric tube feeding is —
A. Side lying position
B. Head end 30 degree elevated
C. Head down position
D. Supine position
64. A typical side effect of statin is
A. Myopathy
B. Glioma
C.
Tremor
D. Nasal congestion
65. The route of transmission of MRSA is ,
A. Sharing of instruments
B. Blood transfusion Band carriage
C. Re-use of disposable items.
D.
Hand carriage
66. When a child is admitted with
diarrhea, the nurse has to anticipate dehydrationand
A. Urinary retention
B. Pulmonary Congestion
C. Hyperactive reflexes
D. Electrolyte imbalance
67. Patient on anticoagulant drugs reports
bleeding gum, black tarry stools. It is a manifestation of
A. Drug resistence
B. Drug sensitivity
C. Irregular intake of the prescribed dose
D. Drug over dose
68-The storage temperature of whole blood
is
A. 2 -6 Degree Celsius
B. 6-10 Degree Celsius
C. <2Degree Celsius
D. 10-15 Degree Celsius
69.The salient features of nurses records
include the all following except
A. Written with Ink
B.
Clear and concise
C. Counter signed by the doctor
D. Should not have overwriting
70. Which of the following sites is not
suitable for IM injections?
A- Upper outer quadrant of the buttocks
B.
Lateral aspects of thigh
C. Outer aspects of shoulder
D.
Medial aspects of thigh
71 The Enteric precautions to be used
while caring a child with Gastro enteritis include the following except
A- Place the child in a private room
B. Wearing Gown
C. Wearing mask
D. Wearing Gloves
72. The recommended technique to test the
gag reflex is
A. Examine the mouth and throat for
excessive saliva
B. Touch the back of the throat with a
tongue depressor
C. Observe the throat muscle for flaccid
paralysis
D. give a spoon of water for swallowing
73. Patient developed seizure while
sitting in the chair. The first action the nursemust do is
A. Lift the patient into the bed
B. Ease the patient to the floor
C. Restrain body movements
D. Insert an airway into the mouth.
74. Choose the false statement related to
medical Imaging Technology.
A. X rays are sufficient to detect fine
details of objects like bone and lungs
B. CT scan has increased ability to see
the soft tissues
C. Nuclear magnetic resonance has no
Radiation risk
D. Echo cardiogram is a radio isotope
imaging
75. A 10 year old child is admitted with
acute exacerbation of asthma.Which of thefollowing findings indicates worsening
of the condition ?
A. Warm,dry skin
B. Drop in SPO2
C. Pulse 90 beats/min
D. Respiration 18breaths/min
76. A mother of six year old child with
type 1 Diabetes informs the nurse that childappears sick and urine is positive
for ketone bodies. The most appropriateinstruction to the mother is
A. Hold the next dose of insulin
B. Come to the hospital immediately
C. Administer an additional dose of
insulin and take rest
D. Encourage the child to drink calorie
free drinks and bring the child to thehospital
77. The indiscriminate Oxygen therapy for
a premature newborn can lead to
A. Glaucoma
B. Cataract
C. Opthalmia neonatorum
D. Retrolental fibroplasia
78. Endotracheal intubation via oral is
preferred to nasal intubation because
A. Nasal intubation promotes sinusitis and
block sinus outflow
B. It is more convenient for intubation
C. Easy for endotracheal suctioning
D. It is more comfortable for the patient
79. Normal CO2 level in blood is
A. 40 -50 mmHg
B. 35-40 mmHg
C. 25- 50 mmhg
D. 30 50mmHg
80. Surgical Time Out is a measure.
A. Relaxing
B. Infection Control
C. Delaying
D. Safety
Answers
1.D 2.A 3.A 4.D
5.C 6.B
7.D 8.B
9.B 10.A 11.D 12.B
13.D 14.C 15.A 16.C 17.A 18.A
19.A 20.A 21.C 22.C 23.A 24.C
25.B 26.B 27.A 28.A 29.D 30.B
31.B 32.B 33.B 34.A 35.A 36.B
37.C 38.D 39.A 40.A 41.B 42.C
43.D 44.C 45.B 46.D 47.D 48.C
49.D 50.C 51.C 52.B 53.C 54.C
55.A 56.C 57.D 58.A 59.A 60.D
61.B 62.B 63.B 64.A 65.D 66.D
67.D 68.A 69.C 70.D 71.C 72.B
73.B 74.D 75.B 76.D 77.D 78.A
79.B 80.D
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