Nursing model paper series 2 – paper 10

Nursing model paper series 2 – paper 10

 

Answers & PDF link is there at the end of this paper

Q. 01 A nurse instructs a client to use the pursed-lip method of breathing. Purpose of this pursed-lip breathing is to-

A. Promote oxygen intake

B. Strengthen the diaphragm

C. Strengthen the intercostal muscles

D. Promote carbon dioxide elimination

 

 

Q. 02 An emergency department nurse is assessing a client who has sustained a blunt injury to the chest wall. Which of the signs would Indicate the presence of pneumothorax in this client?

A. A low respiratory rate

B. Diminished breath sound

C. The presence of a barrel chest

D. A sucking sound at the site of injury

 

 

 

Q. 03 The client with hiatal hernia chronically experiences heartburn following meals.The Nurse plans to teach the client to avoid which action, because it is contraindicated with a hiatal hernia?

A. Lying recumbent following meal

B. Taking in small, frequent, bland diet

C. Raising the head of bed on 6 inch blocks

D. Taking h2-receptor antagonist medication

 

 

 

Q. 04 The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of chronic gastritis. The nurse monitors the client knowing that this client is a risk for which vitamin deficiency?

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin B12

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin E

 

 

 

Q. 05 The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing an acute episode of cholecystitis. Where should the nurse anticipate the location of the pain?

A. Right lower quadrant radiating to neck

B. Right lower quadrant radiating to umbilicus

C. Right upper quadrant radiating to left scapula and shoulder

D. Right upper quadrant radiating to right scapula and shoulder

 

 

 

Q. 06 Which type of catheter is generally used for the client with urine retention?

A. Coude

B. Indwelling

C. Straight

D. Three way

 

 

Q. 07 Negri bodies found in hippocampus ae the diagnostic signs of

A. Rabies

B. Measles

C. Rubella

D. Diphtheria

 

 

Q. 08 What is Odynophagia?

A. Difficulty in swallowing

B. Pain during swallowing

C. Unable to swallow

D. Regurgitation

 

 

Q. 09 Signs of pulmonary consolidation are all except

A. Dullness

B. Increased fremitus

C. Egophny

D. Cystic fibrosis

 

 

Q. 10 Which of the following is not a investigation for dysphagia?

A. Barium swallows

B. Endoscopy

C. Manometry

D. Colonoscopy

Q. 11 Which of the following signs and symptoms would represent an earlymanifestation of Laryngeal cancer?

A. Stomatitis

B. Air way obstruction

C. Hoarseness

D. Dysphasia

 

 

Q. 12 The process that transmits impulses towards the cell body is -

A. Axon

B. Myelin

C. Cell body

D. Dendrites

 

 

Q. 13 Circumstantiality is a disorder of-

A. Mood

B. Affect

C. Behavior

D. Thinking

Q. 14 Delusion is a disorder of-

A. Thought

B. Cognition

C. Perception

D. Insight

 

 

 

Q. 15 Withdrawal of the child into self and into a fantasy world of his or her own creation is -A. Mental retardation

B. Conduct disorder

C. Autistic disorder

D. ADHD

 

 

 

Q. 16 Pavlov’s experiments is an example of -

A. Classical conditioning

B. Modelling

C. Learned helplessness

D. Operant conditioning

 

 

Q. 17 Drug of choice for treatment of alcohol withdrawal is

A. Diazepam

B. Phenelzine

C. Amitriptyline

D. Sodium valproate

 

 

Q. 18 Which drug is CNS stimulant?

A. Cocaine

B. Chlordiazepoxide

C. Phenobarbital

D. Meperidine

 

 

Q. 19 Social skill training becomes one of the most widely used psychosocial interventions in the treatment of

A. Mania

B. Eating disorder

C. Delirium

D. Schizophrenia

 

Q. 20 Extreme salivation is the side effect of

A. Alprazolam

B. Duloxetine

C. Isocarbaxazid

D. Clozapine

 

 

Q. 21 Disturbance of consciousness and change in cognition that develops rapidly over a short period is -

A. Delirium

B. Dementia

C. Delusion

D. Illusion

 

 

Q. 22 Nurse’s ability to be open, honest and real in interaction with client is called -

A. Empathy

B. Warmth

C. Genuineness

D. Respect

ction between two Neurons is called -

A. Synapse

B. Presynaptic neurone

C. Synaptic cleft

D. Dendrites

 

 

Q. 24 Delusion of nihilism and early morning insomnia are characteristic features of

A. Major depression

B. Mania

C. Schizophrenia

D. Personality disorders potential

 

 

 

Q. 25 In Freudian theory, Oedipus complex is seen in which stage of psychosexual development -

A. Anal

B. Genital

C. Phallic

D. Latency

Q. 26 Purpose of therapeutic communication is to -

A. Develop a friendly social relationship with the patient

B. Develop parental authoritarian relationship with the patient

C. Develop a helping, purposeful relationship with the patient

D. Develop cool business like relationship with the patient

 

 

 

Q. 27 The defense mechanism most frequently demonstrated by the chemically dependent person is -

A. Undoing

B. Denial

C. Rationalization

D. Reaction formation

 

 

Q. 28 False perception without external stimulus is -

A. Illusion

B. Delirium

C. Hallucination

D. Delusion

Q. 29 Phobia is -

A. Psychosis

B. Anxiety

C. Fear of animal

D. Neurosis

 

 

Q. 30 Persistently repeats what another person says is called-

A. Obsession

B. Echopraxia

C. Echolalia

D. Clang association

 

 

Q. 31 Patient with obsessive compulsive disorder is -

A. Suspicious and hostile

B. Flexible and adaptable to change

C. Extremely frightened of something

D. Rigid in thoughts, inflexible with routine and rituals

 

 

Q. 32 Neisseria gonococcus is the common organism for -

A. Viral conjunctivitis

B. Allergic

C. Bacterial

D. Ophthalmia neonatorum

 

 

Q. 33 Bone age is less than chronological age is the characteristic of 

A. Familial short stature

B. Hypothyroidism

C. Hypopituitarism

D. Both (b) and (c)

 

 

Q. 34 Progressive enlargement of lymph node is seen in -

A. Scurvy

B. ITP

C. Hemophilia

D. Hodgkin’s disease

Q. 35 Wilms tumor is related to which organ of the body -

A. Stomach

B. Kidney

C. Liver

D. Heart

 

 

Q. 36 Children with Tetralogy of Fallot use which of the following positions?

A. Supine

B. Lateral

C. Prone

D. Squatting

 

 

Q. 37 Rule of Ten is used for -

A. Cleft lip

B. TEF

C. Imperforate anus

D. CHD

 

Q. 38 Clinical manifestation of cystic fibrosis includes all except -

A. Corpulmonale

B. Bronchiectasis

C. Malabsorption

D. Hypertension

 

 

Q. 39 The normal calorie requirement for a 5-year old child is

A. 800 calories

B. 1000 calories

C. 1500 calories

D. 2000 calorie

 

 

 

Q. 40 Child born to diabetic mother can have -

A. Hypoglycemia

B. Hypocalcemia

C. Mental retardation

D. All the above

 

Q. 41 Commonest cause of neonatal death in India is -

A. Prematurity

B. Congenital malformation

C. Metabolic disease

D. Birth injury

 

 

Q. 42 Human milk contains sugar per 100 ml -

A. 7 gm

B. 5 gm

C. 4 gm

D. 9 gm

 

 

Q. 43 Moniliasis is caused by –

A. Fungus Candida albican

B. Bacteria

C. Pneumococci

D. None of the above

 

 

Q. 44 Number of deciduous teeth -

A. 20

B. 24

C. 28

D. 32

 

 

Q. 45 Antidote of acetaminophen poisoning is -

A. Frusemide

B. Ampicillin

C. Acetylcysteine

D. Ethyknediominetetra acetic acid (EDTA)

 

 

Q. 46 In a child, cessation of breathing for 20 seconds with bradycardia is -

A. Apnea

B. Dyspnoea

C. Seizures

D. Cheyne stokes respiration

Q. 47 You observe that a neonate has cyanotic feet and hands within 12 hours afterbirth. What action should you take?

A. Notify the physician

B. Prepare to administer supplemental O2

C. Make sure that the neonate is warm enough and continue observing him

D. Apply warm compression hand and feet

 

 

 

Q. 48 Which vitamin must be taken with iron when child is diagnosed with irondeficiency anemia?

A. Folic acid

B. Ascorbic acid

C. Niacin

D. Riboflavin

 

 

Q. 49 Head control is possible in an infant at -

A. 1 month

B. 3 months

C. 5 months

D. 10 months

Q. 50 The complications of chickenpox are all except-

A. Meningitis

B. Enteritis

C. Pneumonia

D. Rey’s syndrome

 

 

Q.51 A patient with heart failure, which is the accurate indicator of such patient's health status?

A. Weight of the patient.

B. Urine specific gravity.

C. Vital signs.

D. Intake and output.

 

 

Q. 52 Which type of data does auscultation provide?

A. Subjective.

B. Objective.

C. Secondary source.

D. Medical data.

Q.53 Which of the following is reason for intradermal injection to be used for testing allergic reactions?

A. It diffuses rapidly.

B. It diffuses slowly.

C. Less Painful.

D. Easy to administer.

 

 

Q. 54 Which route of drug administration provide a rapid response in a patient?

A. Oral.

B. Sublingual.

C. Intramuscular.

D. Subcutaneous.

 

 

Q. 55 In which type of sleep most vival dreams occurs?

A. Non Hibernation sleep.

B. Rapid eye movement sleep.

C. Hibernation sleep.

D. Non rapid eye movement sleep.

Q. 56 The purpose of deep palpation is to assess?

A. Skin turgor.

B. Temperature.

C. Organs.

D. Hydration.

 

 

Q. 57 Colle's fracture refers to the fracture of?

A. Radius.

B. Ulna.

C. Humerus.

D. Olecranon.

 

 

Q. 58 Surgical repair of hernia is?

A. Herniorrhaphy.

B. Fistulectomy.

C. Herniotomy.

D. Laparoscopy.

 

 

Q. 59 Vertigo is due to problem in?

A. Middle ear.

B. Tympanic membrane.

C. Inner ear.

D. External ear.

 

 

Q. 60 A score of 3 in Glasgow coma scale indicates?

A. Lethargy.

B. Deep coma.

C. Fully responsive.

D. Mutism.

 

 

Q. 61 A nurse is caring for a patient subjected to total laryngectomy should plan for?

A. Oral feeds.

B. Supine position.

C. Alternative communication method.

D. Keeping tracheostomy cuff fully inflated

Q. 62 The most common adverse effect of chemotherapeutic drugs is?

A. Nausea and vomiting.

B. Constipation.

C. Diarrhoea.

D. Painful mouth sores.

 

 

Q. 63 Barrel chest is seen in?

A. Kyphoscoliosis.

B. Rickets.

C. Pneumonia.

D. Emphysema.

 

 

Q. 64 K bind is given to patients with?

A. Hyperkalemia.

B. Hypokalemia.

C. Hypernatremia.

D. Hyponatremia.

Q. 65 Which risk factor for diabetes mellitus is Non Modifiable?

A. Poor control of BSL

B. Obesity.

C. Physical inactive.

D. Age.

 

 

Q. 66 Colour blindness is due to the problem with?

A. Cones.

B. Rods.

C. Aqueous humour.

D. Lens.

 

 

Q. 67 Waiter's tip" position is seen in?

A. Bell’s palsy.

B. Facial palsy.

C. Erbs palsy.

D. DDH.

Q. 68 Census are done at?

A. 2 years.

B. 5 years.

C. 10 years.

D. 12 years.

 

 

 

Q. 69 All of following are to negative health indicator EXCEPT?

A. IMR.

B. Death Rate.

C. Life Expectancy.

D. Perinatal. mortality rate.

 

 

 

Q. 70 Which of the following listed drugs is A proton pump inhibitor?

A. Pantoprazole.

B. Ranitidine.

C. Famotidine.

D. Amikacin.

Q. 71 The type of seizure which involves both sides of brain is called?

A. Generalized seizure.

B. Partial seizure.

C. Primary seizure.

D. Secondary seizure.

 

 

Q. 72 Hepatitis C is most commonly transmitted through?

A. Infected blood.

B. Breast milk.

C. Sexual contact.

D. Kissing.

 

 

 

Q. 73 Deficiency of vitamin D in adults leads to?

A. Osteomalacia.

B. Keratomalacia.

C. Rickets.

D. Osteoporosis.

Q. 74 Inhalation of cotton fiber dust over long periods of time results to?

A. Byssinosis.

B. Bagassosis.

C. Siderosis.

D. Anthracnosis’

 

 

Q. 75 The method used for individual health education in community is?

A. Workshop.

B. Counselling and interview.

C. Demonstrations.

D. Role play.

 

 

Q. 76 The final step in the purification of water on a large scale is?

A. Filtration.

B. Storage.

C. Boiling.

D. Disinfection.

Q. 77 Inability to retract the prepuce to reveal the glans penis is called?

A. Cryptorchidism.

B. Phimosis.

C. Epispadias.

D. Hypospadias.

 

 

 

Q. 78 In which position the nurse place an infant to examine thyroid gland?

A. Supine.

B. Standing.

C. Prone.

D. Sitting.

 

 

 

Q. 79 Which of these is A cyanotic heart disease?

A. ASD.

B. VSD.

C. TOF.

D. PDA.

Q. 80 Sway back appearance is seen in a child with?

A. Talipes.

B. Lordosis.

C. Kyphosis.

D. Scoliosis.

 

 

Q. 81 Bitot's spots are found due to deficiency of vitamin?

A. C.

B. B1.

C. B2.

D. A.

 

 

Q. 82 Which of these designs is used to estimate the prevalence of Osteoporosis?

A. Factorial.

B. Quasi experimental.

C. Cross sectional.

D. Cross over.

 

Q. 83 A blue print for the conduction of study is?

A. Pilot study.

B. Data collection tool.

C. Research hypothesis.

D. Research design.

 

 

Q. 84 Which of these is A sign of previous child birth?

A. Rigid abdominal wall.

B. Gaping introitus.

C. Round external OS.

D. Ovoid uterus.

 

 

Q. 85 Which of these is considered as dangerous placenta previa?

A. Type 1 posterior.

B. Type 2 posterior.

C. Type 1 anterior.

D. Type 2 anterior.

 

Q. 86 A late complication of molar pregnancy?

A. Uterine perforation.

B. Choriocarcinoma.

C. Shock.

D. Coagulation failure.

 

 

Q. 87 Ideal time for tubectomy following menstruation?

A. Ovulatory phase.

B. Proliferative phase.

C. Secretory phase.

D. Menstrual phase.

 

 

Q. 88 In which type of abortion fetus dead and retained inside the uterus for a variable period?

A. Missed.

B. Threatened.

C. Inevitable.

D. Incomplete.

Q. 89 Which of these is A galactopoietic hormone?

A. Oxytocin.

B. Prolactin.

C. Progesterone.

D. Estrogen.

 

 

Q. 90 After birth the umbilical vein collapses and forms?

A. Ligamentum arteriosum.

B. Ligamentum venosum.

C. Ligamentum umbilicus.

D. Ligamentum teres.

 

 

Q. 91 Which of the following is an alarming sign of pre-eclampsia?

A. +2 proteinuria.

B. Blood pressure 150/90.

C. +2 grade edema.

D. +4 deep tendon reflexes.

Q. 92 Which drug is contraindicated in a laboring mother with hypertension?

A. Prostaglandins.

B. Oxytocin.

C. Methergine.

D. Magnesium sulphate.

 

Q. 93 An amniotic fluid index less then 5cm indicates?

A. Anhydramnios.

B. Hydramnios.

C. Oligohydramnios.

D. Polyhydramnios.

 

 

Q. 94 The third stage of labour ends with?

A. Two hours after birth of baby.

B. Birth of baby.

C. Delivery of placenta.

D. Fully cervical dilatation.

Q. 95 Most common type of shock in trauma patients?

A. Hypovolemic shock.

B. Electric shock.

C. Allergic shock.

D. None of the above.

 

 

Q. 96 Spinal medicine is given at which number of spine?

A. L1 to L2.

B. L4 to L5.

C. L5 to T1.

D. C6 to L2.

 

 

Q. 97 The vaccine against polio was developed by?

A. Salk.

B. Edward Jenner.

C. Louis Pasteur.

D. Fleming. Salk.

 

Q. 98 New growth in the bone marrow is?

A. Myoma.

B. Osteoma.

C. Odontoma.

D. Myeloma.

 

 

Q. 99 How many positions are seen in breech presentation?

A. 6.

B. 8.

C. 2.

D. 4.

 

 

Q. 100 Herpes Zoster is A common Disease caused by?

A. Unhygienic skin conditions.

B. Viral infection.

C. Nerve disease.

D. Blood disorder.

 

 

Answers

1.D          2.B          3.A          4.B          5.D

 

6.B          7.A          8.B          9.D          10.D

 

11.C        12.D        13.D        14.A        15.C

 

16.A        17.A        18.A        19.D        20.D

 

21.A        22.C        23.A        24.A        25.C

 

26.C        27.D        28.C        29.D        30.C

 

31.D        32.D        33.D        34.D        35.B

 

36.D        37.A        38.D        39.C        40.D

 

41.A        42.A        43.A        44.D         45.C

 

46.C        47.C        48.B        49.B        50.B

 

51.A        52.B        53.B        54.B        55.B

 

56.C        57.A        58.A        59.C        60.B

 

61.C        62.A        63.D        64.A        65.D

 

66.A        67.C        68.C        69.C        70.A

 

71.A        72.A        73.A        74.A        75.B

 

76.D        77.B        78.A        79.C        80.B

 

81.D        82.C        83.D        84.B        85.B

 

86.B        87.B        88.A        89.B        90.D

 

91.D        92.C        93.C        94.C        95.A

 

96.B        97.A        98.D        99.B        100.B

 

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