Nursing model paper series 2 – paper 11
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Q.1. Which is the overall, priority goal of inpatient
psychiatric treatment?
A. Maintenance of stability in the community
B. Medication compliance
C. Stabilization and return to the community
D. Better communication skill
Q.2. Which one of the following is an antioxidant?
A. Calcium
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin B
D. Vitamin A
Q.3. What element of the communication process
summarizes the conversation with the patient and ensures the patients’
understanding?
A. Referent
B. Channel
C. Environment
D. Feed back
Q.4. The best approach to facilitate communication
with the patient with bilateral hearing loss, wearing an aid in her left ear -
A. Speak directly into the patient’s left air
B. Speak from behind
C. Face the patient, speak slower in normal volume
D. Face the patient and speak louder
Q.5. Segregation of hospital waste is done -
A. At the source of generation
B. While transporting the waste
C. At the level of municipality disposal
D. While burning the waste
Q.6. SARS is a -
A. Bacterial infection
B. Viral infection
C. Fungal infection
D. Parasitic infection
Q.7. “Plumbism” refers to -
A. Mercury poisoning
B. Lead poisoning
C. Arsenic poisoning
D. Asbestos poisoning
Q.8. Application of the drug to the skin -
A. Inhalation
B. Insertion
C. Instillation
D. Inunction
Q.9. The angle of insertion for intramuscular
injection is ……degrees -
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
D. 90
Q.10. Which of the following position the nurse places
the client when the epidural regional block is administered?
A. Lithotomy
B. Supine
C. Prone
D. Lateral
Q.11. The placenta should be delivered within how many
minutes after the delivery of the baby?
A. 25 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 35 minutes
D. 60 minutes
Q.12. In a lady having a regular 28 day menstrual
cycle, what is the safe period?
A. Initial 28 days
B. Later 14 days
C. First and last 7 days
D. First 7 days only
Q.13. Pregnant women should be immunized for -
A. Hepatitis vaccine
B. TT vaccine
C. MMR vaccine
D. BCG vaccine
Q.14. Professional negligence is legally termed as -
A. Crime
B. Assault
C. Malpractice
D. Slander
Q.15. A drug commonly used to dilate the pupil of the
eye is called ?
A. Miotic
B. Mydriatic
C. Cycloplegic
D. None of the above.
Q.16. Exclusive breast feeding is for -
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 8 months
D. 1 year
Q.17. The most common cause of urinary retention in
women is -
A. Urethral stricture
B. Spinal cord injury
C. Cystocele
D. Detrusor failure
Q.18. The needle used for liver biopsy is -
A. Tru–cut biopsy needle
B. Scalp vein needle
C. Vim-Silverman needle
D. Jamshidi needle
Q.19. How often should a tracheostomy tube be changed
–
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 3-4 days
Q. 20. Sodium restricted diet is indicated for clients
with -
A. Congestive cardiac failure
B. Burns
C. Pre-eclampsia
D. Cholelithiasis
Q. 21 Identify Below Given Image Name?
A. Nebulizer Machine
B. Nebulizer Mask
C. Steam Inhaler
D. None of these
Q. 22 Which of the following is not considered as
Metaparadigm of nursing?
A. Person
B. Environment
C. Nursing
D. Diagnosis
Q. 23 Which of the following is considered as a
example of intentional tort?
A. Malpractice
B. Negligence
C. Breach of duly
D. False imprisonment
Q. 24 Which of the following clinical findings
indicates that the patient is experiencing hypokalemia?
A. Edema
B. Muscle spasms
C. Kussaumal breathing
D. Abdominal distention
Q. 25 A Patient is wearing a soft wrist-safety device.
Which of the following nursing assessment is considered abnormal?
A. Palpable radical pulse
B. Palpable ulnar pulse
C. Capillary refill within 3 seconds
D. Bluish fingernails, cool and pale finger
Q. 26 The nurse is instructing a group of volunteer
nurses on the technique of administering the BCG vaccine. What method should
the nurse teach the group to administer the vaccine correctly?
A. Z-track injection
B. Intravenous injection
C. Subcutaneous injection
D. Intradermal scratch injection
Q. 27 A client is to receive 2000 ml of I.V. fluids in
12 hours. The drop factor is 10 gtt/ml. At how many drops per minute should the
flow rate be set?
A. 22 drops/min
B. 24 drops/min
C. 26 drops/min
D. 28 drops/min
Q. 28 Tube feeding should be delayed if the amount of
gastric content exceeds
A. 20 ml
B. 25 ml
C. 30 ml
D. 50 ml
Q. 29 In the absence of pathology, client respiratory
center is stimulated by
A. Oxygen
B. Lactic acid
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Calcium ion
Q. 30 In Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), what kind
of immunity is lost?
A. Active immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Humoral immunity
D. Cellular immunity
Q. 31 Which one of the chronic conditions
contraindicates the use of ice on sprained ankle?
A. Gastritis
B. Diabetes
C. Glaucoma
D. Osteoporosis
Q. 32 Thoracentesis is useful in treating all
pulmonary disorders, except:
A. Hemothorax
B. Tuberculosis
C. Hydrothorax
D. Empyema
Q. 33 Absence of an informed consent while performing
a procedure on patient can lead to which of the following charges?
A. Fraud
B. Assault and battery
C. Harassment
D. Breach of confidentiality
Q. 34 Process of formal negotiations on working
conditions between a group of nurses and employer is-
A. Grievance
B. Arbitration
C. Collective bargaining
D. Strike
Q. 35 Allen’s test checks the patency of the
A. Ulnar artery
B. Radial artery
C. Carotid artery
D. Brachial artery
Q. 36 Needle Stick Safety and Prevention Act was
passed in
A. November, 2000
B. December, 1998
C. November, 2002
D. April, 2010
Q. 37 What instructions should be given to the client
before undergoing a paracentaisis?
A. NPO 12 hrs before procedure
B. Empty bladder before procedure
C. Strict bed rest following procedure
D. Empty bowel before procedure
Q. 38 Application of force to another person without
lawful justification is-
A. Battery
B. Negligence
C. Tort
D. Crime
Q. 39 Colour coding for nitrous oxide cylinder is –
A. Black
B. Black with white shoulder
C. French Blue
D. Gray
Q. 40 Principle of good mechanics includes –
A. Keeping the knees in locked position
B. Maintaining the wide base of support and bending at
the knee
C. Bending at the waist to maintain a centre of
gravity
D. Holding objects away from the body for improved
leverage
Q. 41 Control of spread of disease is an example of
which level of prevention?
A. Primary intervention
B. Secondary intervention
C. Tertiary intervention
D. Nursing intervention
Q. 42 A client with multiple trauma is admitted in
ortho unit. The client has a leg fracture and had plaster cast applied. The
best position of casted leg is:-
A. Elevated leg for 3 hours and keep the leg at level
for half an hour
B. Elevated leg for 6 hour put in flat position for
one hour
C. Elevated leg continued for 24-48 hours
D. Keep the leg in a level position
Q. 43 A nurse is evaluating the status of the client
who had craniotomy 3 days ago. The nurse would suspect that the client is
developing meningitis as a complication of surgery if the client exhibits
A. A negative kerning sign
B. Absence of nuccal rigidity
C. A positive bruzinski sign
D. A Glasgow coma scale score
Q. 44 The client is diagnosed with disorder involving
the inner ear. Which of the following is the most common complaint associated
with a disorder involving this part of the ear?
A. Pruritus
B. Tinnitus
C. Hearing loss
D. Burning in the ear
Q. 45 Morphine is contraindicated in
A. Angina
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Pancreatitis
D. Myocardial infarction
Q. 46 Objectives for treating diabetic ketoacidosis
includes administration of which of the following treatments?
A. Glucagon
B. Blood product
C. Glucocorticoids
D. Insulin and I.V. fluid
Q. 47 A client with Myocardial infarction suddenly
becomes tachycardiac, shows signs of air hunger and begins coughing frothy,
pink tinged sputum. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate when
auscultation the client’s breathing sounds?
A. Stridor
B. Crackles
C. Scattered rhonchi
D. Diminished breath
Q. 48 A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a
client with pulmonary sarcoidosis. The nurse concludes that the client
understands the information if the client reports which of the following early
signs of exacerbation?
A. Fever
B. Fatigue
C. Wight loss
D. Shortness of breath
Q. 49 A client has experienced pulmonary embolism. A
nurse must assess most commonly reported symptom-
A. Hot, flushed feeling
B. Sudden chills and fever
C. Chest pain that occurs suddenly
D. Dysponea when deep breaths are taken
Q. 50 A nurse is suctioning fluids from client via a
tracheostomy tube. When suctioning, the nurse must limit the suctioning time to
a maximum of -
A. 1 minute
B. 5 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. 3 seconds
Q. 51. Vitamin A supplementation is given to children
from the age of 1 to 6 years
for every-
A. 3 months
B. 6 Months
C. Yearly
D. 8 Months
Q. 52. Which micro-organism is associated with
cervical cancer?
A. Human papilloma virus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Mylobacterium avium
D. Pheumocystis carinii
Q. 53. Normal percentage of carbohydrate in human milk
is
A. 4%
B. 10%
C. 7%
D. 6%
Q. 54. A 4 years old female child vomited and her
mother stated, “She vomited 200 ml of the formula feeding in this morning.”
what type of data is this?
A. Objective data from a secondary source
B. Objective data from a primary source
C. Subjective data from a secondary source
D. Subjective data from a primary source
Q. 55. The nurse choose to assess an apical pulse
instead of a radial pulse. Which of the following client’s condition influenced
the nurse’s decision?
A. The client had surgery 18 hrs before
B. The client has an arrhythmia
C. The client is in shock
D. A client’s response to orthostatic changes
Q. 56. Lactated Ringer’s solution is contraindicated
in-
A. Hypervolemia
B. Burns
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Fluid loss as bile or diarrhea
Q. 57. ECG changes in Myocardial infarction is-
A. ST segment elevation
B. Wide ORS complex
C. Presence of U wave
D. Prolonged PR interval
Q. 58. Which of the following is not required to clot
formation ?
A. Vit K
B. Calcium
C. Plasmin
D. Fibrinogen
Q. 59. A menstrual condition characterized by severe
and frequent menstrual cramps and pain associated with menstruation is termed
as
A. Dysmenorrhea
B. Amenorrhea
C. Hypermenorrhea
D. Polymenorrhea
Q. 60. Which precaution is used during phototherapy?
A. leave infant’s clothes on
B. Check the infant’s temperature once a day
C. Repositioning the infant frequently
D. Cover the infant’s eyes
Q. 61. Formula for IQ is =
A. IQ = MA/CA
B. IQ = MA/CA x 100
C. IQ = CA/MA x 100
D. IQ = CA/MA
Q. 62. Body temperature is regulated by -
A. Kidney
B. Lungs
C. Heart
D. Hypothalamus
Q. 63. Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure is -
A. 110 -180 mm of H2O
B. 180-300 mm of H2O
C. 200- 400 mm of H2O
D. 5 – 10 mm of H2O
Q. 64. Another name for knee- chest position -
A. Genu–dorsal
B. Genu-pectoral
C. Lithotomy
D. Sim’s
Q. 65. The nurse should monitor the patients after the
thrombolytic therapy for the following adverse effects -
A. Chest pain
B. Cyanosis
C. Hemoptysis
D. Tachycardia
Q. 66. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by-
A. Vitamin B12 and folate
B. Protein deficiency
C. Thiamine deficiency
D. Vitamin C deficiency
Q. 67. Which one of the following is not a diuretic -?
A. Enalapril
B. Mannitol
C. Spironolactone
D. Furosemide
Q. 68. Pentavalent vaccine protects against -
A. DPT, Measles, Rubella
B. DPT, Polio, Hepatitis B.
C. DPT, Polio, Hepatitis A
D. DPT, haemophilus influenza-b, Hepatitis B
Q. 69. FSH is secreted by -
A. Ovary
B. Hypothalamus
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary
Q. 70. The most common symptom of esophageal carcinoma
would be -
A. Sore throat
B. Dysphagia
C. Weight loss
D. Haemorrhage
Q. 71. The cardinal sign of meningitis is -
A. Kernig’s sign
B. Diarrhea
C. Common cold
D. Fever
Q. 72. How many calories are there in 1 gm of fat?
A. 9 calories
B. 7 calories
C. 5 calories
D. 25 calories
Q. 73. Which nutrient helps in tissue repair?
A. Fat
B. Protein
C. Vitamin
D. Carbohydrate
Q. 74. Infective type of food poisoning -
A. Salmonella
B. Staphylococcus
C. Clostridium
D. coli
Q. 75. The most common pathologic findings in
individuals at risk for sudden cardiac death is -
A. Aortic valve disease
B. Mitral valve disease
C. Left ventricular dysfunction
D. Atherosclerotic heart disease
Q. 76. Low protein diet is ordered for patients with -
A. Anaemia
B. Acute nephritis
C. Burns
D. Gastritis
Q. 77. Sites for bone marrow examination include all
except –
A. Sternum
B. Posterior superior iliac spine
C. Lumbar vertebrae
D. Femur
Q. 78. Bromhexine drugs are used for –
A. Leprosy
B. Acute myeloid leukaemia
C. Oesophagitis
D. To liquify respiratory secretions
Q. 79. Structures of the body that are responsible for
conveying information / message around the body are called -
A. Lymphocyte
B. Alveoli
C. Neurons
D. Nephrons
Q. 80. How many drops in a standard drip set makes one
ml ?
A. 20
B. 16
C. 15
D. 10
Q. 81. Which of the following minerals should be taken
by a child suffering from Rickets?
A. Potassium
B. Calcium
C. Sodium
D. Iron
Q. 82. Heat application is contraindicated in
appendicitis because it -
A. Can cause the appendix to rupture and cause
peritonitis
B. Can mask symptoms of acute appendicitis
C. Will increase peristalsis throughout the abdomen
D. Will arrest progression of the disease
Q. 83. Kaposi’s sarcoma is associated with-
A. Human papilloma virus
B. Human T cell lymphocytic virus type (HTLV-1)
C. Human immunodeficiency virus
D. Epstein Barr virus
Q. 84. While instilling ear drops, the ear canal of an
adult is straightened by pulling the pinna -
A. Down and back
B. Up and back
C. Straight down
D. Straight back
Q. 85. Frozen DPT vaccine should be -
A. Shaken thoroughly before use
B. Allowed to melt before use
C. Discarded
D. Brought to room temperature before use
Q. 86. The most common cause of blindness in India is
-
A. Cataract
B. Trachoma
C. Refractive errors
D. Vitamin deficiency
Q. 87. Human milk is rich in all, Except -
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Iron
D. Vitamin E
Q. 88. Window period in HIV indicates -
A. Time period between infection and onset of the
first symptom
B. Time period between infection and detection of
antibodies against HIV
C. Time period between infection and maximum
multiplication of the causative organism
D. None of the above
Q. 89. Islets of Langerhans produces -
A. Bile
B. Trypsin
C. Insulin
D. Rennin
Q. 90. The part of the brain, which is responsible for
the coordination of movement is -
A. Brain stem
B. Cerebellum
C. Thalamus
D. Hypothalamus
Q. 91. Anterior fontanelle normally closes between the
ages -
A. 2 & 3 months
B. 12 & 18 months
C. 3 & 6 months
D. 1 &9 months
Q. 92. Which one of the following is a combined
(triple) vaccine?
A. Oral polio
B. BCG
C. DPT
D. Rabies
Q. 93. Infection of the middle ear is called -
A. Sinusitis
B. Mastoiditis
C. Otitis media
D. Labyrinthitis
Q. 94. The process of development of a matured ovum is
called -
A. Ovulation
B. Oophoria
C. Oogenesis
D. Oocyte
Q. 95. One teaspoonful of medicine is equal to -
A. 10 ml
B. 15 ml
C. 5 ml
D. 20 ml
Q. 96. Rods and cones are the structures of -
A. Middle ear
B. Eyes
C. Ovary
D. Lungs
Q. 97. The disease characterized by proteinuria,
hypoproteinemia, diffuse edema, high serum cholesterol and hyperlipidaemia –
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Nephrolithiasis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Acute renal failure
Q. 98. Pertussis vaccine is contraindicated if the
child has -
A. A history of convulsion
B. A history of juvenile diabetes
C. A history of jaundice
D. A history of tuberculosis
Q. 99. Vaccine contraindicated during pregnancy is -
A. Rubella
B. OPV
C. Tetanus
D. Influenza
Q. 100. Addison’s disease is otherwise called -
A. Acute adrenocortical insufficiency
B. Hyperpituitarism
C. Chronic adrenocortical insufficiency
D. Hyperaldosteronism
Answers
1.C
2.B 3.D 4.C 5.A
6.B 7.B 8.D 9.D 10.D
11.B 12.C 13.B 14.C 15.B
16.B 17.C 18.C 19.C 20.A
21.C 22.D 23.D 24.D 25.D
26.D 27.D 28.D 29.C 30.D
31.B 32.D 33.B 34.C 35.B
36.A 37.B 38.A 39.C 40.B
41.C 42.C 43.C 44.B 45.B
46.D 47.B 48.D 49.C 50.C
51.B 52.A 53.C 54.A 55.B
56.C 57.A 58.C 59.A 60.D
61.B 62.D 63.A 64.B 65.B
66.A 67.A 68.D 69.C 70.B
71.D 72.A 73.B 74.A 75.D
76.B 77.D 78.D 79.C 80.C
81.B 82.A 83.C 84.B 85.C
86.A 87.C 88.B 89.C 90.B
91.B 92.C 93.C 94.A 95.C
96.B 97.C 98.A 99.A 100.C
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