Nursing model paper series 2 – paper 12

Nursing model paper series 2 – paper 12

 

Answers & PDF link is there at the end of this paper

Q. 01 The Placenta is originated from?

A. Chorion frondsum 

B. Decidual vera 

C. Decidual capsularis

D. Myocardium

 

 

Q. 02 Gravida Denotes to?

A. Pregnant state 

B. Previous pregnancy 

C. Pregnancy at the state of 30 and above 

D. All

 

 

Q. 03 Which one is the main cause of PID?

A. Abruptio Placentae 

B. Placenta previa

C. Ectopic Pregnancy 

D. PPH

 

Q. 04 Movement of fetus felt by the mother is known as?

A. Lightening 

B. Ballottement 

C. Quickening 

D. Brixton hick’s contraction

 

 

Q. 05 Pap's smear is used for screening of ?

A. Ovulation 

B. Cervical cancer

C. Uterine cancer

D. Menstrual cycle

 

 

Q. 06 Which medication can be used after delivery to suppress lactation? 

A. Metoclopramide  B. Bromocriptine 

C. Prolactin 

D. All of above

 

 

Q. 07 Placenta delivered in which stage of Labour ? 

A. 1st stage

B. 2nd stage

C. 3rd stage 

D. 4th stage

 

 

Q. 08 In following, Which one is  NOT a compilation of twin pregnancy? 

A. Low birth weight 

B. Post maturity 

C. Abortion 

D. Chromosomal abnormalities

 

 

Q. 09 Which type of episiotomy is Most Commonly done ?

A. Lateral

B. Medial

C. Medio-lateral 

D. J shaped

 

Q. 10 Which STD (Sexual transmitted disease) is Most Common STD in female? 

A. HIV B. Chlamydia 

C. Gonorrhea 

D. Genital herpes

 

 

Q. 11 Which is Most Common Cause of  puerperal  fever in puerperium ? 

A. Abscess formation 

B. UTI

C. Endometritis 

D. PID

 

 

Q.12 Total number of bones in female Pelvis? 

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

 

Q. 13 Standard prophylactic dose of Iron supplementation in Pregnancy?

A. 120 mg per day

B. 60 mg once daily

C. 60 mg three times in a day

D. 60 mg 2 times in a day.

 

 

Q. 14 Which is the most common hypertensive disorder in pregnancy in young primigravida?

A. Mild preeclampsia 

B. Severe pre-eclampsia 

C. Eclampsia 

D. Superimposed pre-eclampsia

 

 

Q. 15 Drug of choice for prevention of seizures in eclampsia? 

A. Phenytoin 

B. Dopamine 

C. Magnesium sulphate

D. Chlordiazepoxide

Q. 16 The definitive treatment of preeclampsia is?

A. Rest and lateral position 

B. High protein High calorie diet

C. Termination of pregnancy 

D. IV magnesium sulphate

 

 

Q. 17 Most Common Cause of maternal mortality rate in India? 

A. Infection 

B. Hemorrhage 

C. Hypertension in pregnancy 

D. Thrombosis

 

 

Q. 18 A surgical incision during Pregnancy to reduce chances of Perineal tear is termed as?

A. Amniotomy 

B. Evacuation 

C. LSCS

D. Episiotomy

Q. 19 Which parameters are NOT included in bishops scoring system?

A. Dilatation of cervix 

B. Length of the cervix 

C. Position of cervix 

D. Discharge of cervical mucus

 

 

Q. 20 The embryo can be identified as a human as early as- 

A. 4th week

B. 8th week

C. 12th week

D. 16th week

 

 

Q. 21 Important feature of pregnancy in second trimester?     

A. Frequency of maturation     

B. Lightning     

C. Quickening     

D. Amenorrhea

 

Q. 22 Highest diameter of fetal skull is?    

A. Mento-vertical     

B. Submento-vertical     

C. Suboccipto-bregmatic     

D. Submento-bregmatic

 

 

Q. 23 Most commonest lie of fetus?    

A. Transverse     

B. Oblique     

C. Longitudinal     

D. Unstable

 

 

Q. 24 Commonest Presentation of fetus?     

A. Podalic    

B. Shoulder

C. Face    

D. Cephalic

 

 

Q. 25 Commonest presenting part is?

A. Brow

B. Face 

C. Foot

D. Vertex

 

 

Q. 26 Universal attitude of foetus? 

A. Flexion 

B. Extension 

C. Hyperextension 

D. Unstable

 

 

Q. 27 Most Common cause of breech presentation is?

A. Multiple pregnancy

B. Hydroamnious

C. Multipara

D. Preterm labor

 

Q. 28 Commonest type of ectopic pregnancy? 

A. Abdominal pregnancy 

B. Corunal pregnancy 

C. Tubal pregnancy 

D. Ovarian pregnancy

 

 

Q. 29. Commonest cause of early miscarriage? 

A. Chromosomal abnormality 

B. Cervical incompetence 

C. Infections 

D. Autoimmune diseases

 

 

Q. 30 Most common mal presentation is ?

A. Breech

B. Face

C. Foot

D. Cephalic

 

 

Q. 31 Most important symptom of placenta previa? 

A. Hypertension 

B. Polyhydramnios

C. Vaginal bleeding 

D. Convulsions

 

 

Q. 32 Important predisposing factor of Abruptio Placentae?

A. Hypertensive disorders in pregnancy 

B. Long cord 

C. Trauma 

D. Short umbilical cord

 

 

Q. 33 Most Common Hematological Problem in pregnancy?

A. Hypertension 

B. Anemia 

C. Polycythemia 

D. Coagulation disorders

 

Q. 34 Most Common Cause of PPH?

A. Atonic uterus

B. Trauma 

C. Blood coagulopathy  

D. Placenta previa

 

 

Q. 35 Most Common Cause of secondary PPH?

A. Retain bits of placenta 

B. Puerperal sepsis 

C. Subinvolution

D. Blood coagulation disorders

 

 

Q. 36 The most sensitive marker to predict preterm labour? 

A. Serum ferritin 

B. Ferning test

C. Cervical length

D. Fibronectin

Q. 37 The major contribution in amniotic fluid is by?

A. Fetal urine

B. Fetal plasma

C. Mother's plasma 

D. Mother's urine

 

 

Q. 38 Fern test is used to assess?

A. Ovulation 

B. Ca cervix 

C. Pregnancy 

D. Fetal maturity

 

 

Q. 39 Best investigation to diagnose ectopic pregnancy? 

A. Urine pregnancy test

B. USG 

C. Laparoscopy 

D. Hysterectomy

Q. 40 Most Common side effects of IUCD use?

A. Ectopic Pregnancy 

B. Uterine rupture

C. Excessive menstrual flow

D. Expulsion of IUCD

 

 

 

Q. 41 The safest position for a woman who is in Labour with cord prolapse?

A. Supine

B. Fowlers 

C. Trendelenburg

D. Lithotomy

 

 

Q. 42. Fetal heart sounds can be assessed as early as between? 

A. 4-6 weeks

B. 8-10 weeks

C. 10-12 weeks

D. 16-18 weeks

Q. 43 The most difficult time to control diabetes during maternity cycle? 

A. First trimester 

B. 2nd trimester 

C. During Intrapartum period 

D. Puerperium

 

 

 

Q. 44 Which of the following is the highest diameter of pelvis? 

A. Antero-posterior 

B. Lateral 

C. Oblique diameter 

D. All are equal

 

 

Q. 45 Which is the immediate nursing action during eclampsia

A. IV magnesium sulphate 

B. Prevent from injury

C. Airways protections 

D. Vital monitoring

Q. 46 Which term best describe fetal descent during Labour? 

A. Position

B. Dilatation

C. Station 

D. Presentation

 

 

Q. 47 Priority nursing assessment after of membrane? 

A. Assess FHS 

B. BP Monitoring 

C. Pelvis examination 

D. Presentation

 

 

Q. 48 The greater danger in breech presentation? 

A. Cord prolapse 

B. Precipitate Labour 

C. Rupture of Uterus

D. Prolapse of foot

 

Q. 49 The safest method of termination of pregnancy before 12 weeks? 

A. D&C

B. Laminaria tent

C. Suction evacuation 

D. Prostaglandins

 

 

 

Q. 50 The outermost membrane of placenta? 

A. Amnion 

B. Yolk sac

C. Chorion

D. Cotyledons

 

 

Q. 51.Most frequently Accruing brain tumour is-

1. Meningioma

2. Pituitary adenoma

3. Neurofibroma

4. Glioma

 

 

Q.52. Most common cause of UTI?

1. E. Coli

2. Streptococci

3. Staphylococci

4. Meningococci

 

 

Q.53. Most common cause of Peptic ulcer?

1. Tea

2. Smoking

3. H. Pylori

4. Alcoholism

 

 

Q.54. Most common cause of aortic aneurysim?

1. Trachoma

2. Atherosclerosis

3. Syphilis

4. Trauma

 

Q.55.Most common site of carcinoma in pancreas?

1. Head

2. Body

3. Tail

4. None

 

 

Q.56. Best test for Liver disfunction is?

1. SGPT

2. Serum Albumin

3. Serum bilirubin

4. PT

 

 

Q.57. Most serious complication of fracture?

1. Septicaemia

2. Bleeding

3. Fat embolism

4. Dehydration

 

 

Q.58. Which cardiac marker raised first in myocardial infraction ?

1. CK-MB

2. SGOT

3. Myoglobin

4. Troponin

 

 

Q.59. Most Important Nursing Intervention for an unconscious Patient-

1. Maintain proper circulation

2. Maintain patent airway

3. Provide mouth care

4. Provide skin care

 

 

Q.60. Commonest  type of fracture is seen in children?

1. Pott's fracture

2. Greenstick fracture

3. Clavicle fracture

4. Colley's fracture

Q.61. Most important assessment for a patient who having very severe allergic reaction-

1. Skin color

2. Blood pressure

3. Heart rate

4. Urine output

 

 

Q.62 Respiratory center are stimulated by-

1. Oxygen

2. Lactic acid

3. Carbon dioxide

4. Calcium

 

 

Q.63 Most common cause of chronic Asthma?

1. Atelactasis

2. Pulmonary fibrosis

3. Pneumonia

4. Emphysema

 

Q.64 Main clinical symptom of hiatal hernia?

1. Vomiting

2. Diarrhoea

3. Heart burn

4.Lower abdomen pain

 

 

Q.65 First most common type of cancer in females in india?

1. Cervical cancer

2. Breast cancer

3. Vaginal cancer

4. Ovarian cancer

 

 

Q.66 Most frequently accruing brain tumour is-

1. Meningioma

2. Pituitary adenoma

3. Neurofibroma

4. Glioma

 

 

Q.67. Most important aspect of management of burn injury in first 24 hours is-

1. Dressing

2. Antibiotic therapy

3. Fluid resuscitation

4. Plastic surgery

 

 

Q.68. Most important nursing action when caring for a patient with renal stone?

1. Limit fluids at night

2. Increase fluid intake

3. Administer analgesics

4. Vitals record.

 

 

Q.69.  Most common complication of chronic suppurative otitis Media?

1. Sensorineural hearing loss

2. Conductive hearing loss

3. Peripheral Neuritis

4. Meningitis

 

Q.70 Most important complication of peritoneal dialysis?

1. DVT

2. Diarrhoea

3. Peritonitis

4. Hypertension

 

 

Q.71. Bell's Palsy is associate with the lesion in of-

1. 11th cranial nerve

2. 9th cranial nerve

3. 7th cranial nerve

4. 3rd cranial nerve

 

 

Q.72. Heberden nodes are characteristic of?

1. Rheumatic fever

2. Osteoarthritis

3. Rheumatoid arthritis

4. Suppurative   arthritis

 

 

Q.73. Earliest and commonest clinical feature of primary biliary cirrhosis?

1. Pain

2. Pruritus

3. Fever

4. Jaundice

 

 

Q.74. Commonest cause of cerebral infraction?

1. Embolism

2. Venous Thrombus

3. Aneurysm

4. Arterial thrombus

 

 

Q.75 Most common cause of primary hydrocephalus?

1. Over production of CSF

2. Obstruction in CSF flow

3. Slow reabsorption

4. None

 

Q.76. Commonest type of carcinoma of cervix-

1. Squamous cell carcinoma

2. Mucoid cell carcinoma

3. Transitional cell carcinoma

4. None

 

 

 

Q.77. Most common type of renal stone?

1. Calcium stone

2. Cystine stone

3. Mixed stone

4. Uric acid stone.

 

 

 

Q.78. Most common feature of renal Carcinoma?

1. Lower abdomen pain

2. Painful haematuria

3. Oligouria

4. Painless haematuria

 

 

Q.79 Early Symptom of Myasthenia Gravis ?

1. Paralysis

2. Salivation

3. Ptosis

4. Dysphagia

 

 

Q.80.The maker criteria for diagnosis of rheumatic fever include EXCEPT?

1. Fever

2. Carditis

3. Chorea

4. Subcutaneous Nodules

 

 

Q.81. Most Specific test for Myocardial Damage is?

1. CK-MB

2. Myoglobin

3. CK

4. Troponin-I

Q.82. Most Common cause of liver cirrhosis is?

1. Alcohol

2. Infections

3. Analgesics

4. Spicy food

 

 

Q.83.Most common cause of coronary artery disease -

1. Hyperglycemia

2. Stress

3. Atherosclerosis

4. Coronary artery spasm

 

 

Q.84. The PRIORITY treatment of ventricular fibrillation includes?

1. Regular ECG

2. Cardiac characterization

3. CPR

4. Suitable Position.

 

Q.85 Most likely adverse effect of external radiation to the Neck for the cancer of Larynx-

1. Diarrhoea

2. Sore throat

3. Constipation

4. Dyspnoea

 

 

Q.86 Most Common malignancy in children ?

1. Lung cancer

2. Oral cancer

3. Leukaemia

4. Haemophilia

 

 

Q.87 Most common Cause of Obstructive Jaundice is?

1. Cholecystitis

2. Common bile duct stone

3. Hepatitis

4. Pancreatitis

 

Q.88 Most common site of intracranial hemorrhage -

1. Cerebrum

2. Cerebellum

3. Basal ganglia

4. Mid brain

 

 

Q.89 Murphy's Sign is a Important sign associated with-

1. Appendicitis

2. Pancreatitis

3. Cholelithiasis

4. Cholecystitis

 

 

Q.90 Most common type of glaucoma is?

1. Primary open angle glaucoma

2. Secondary open glaucoma

3. Close angle glaucoma

4. Other types

Q.91 Most common type of burn injury?

1. Chemical

2. Thermal

3. Electrical

4. Inhalation

 

 

 

Q.92  Most common type of skin Cancer?

1. Malignant melanoma

2. Squamous cell carcinoma

3. Basal cells carcinoma

4. Itching

 

 

 

Q.93 Most common clinical manifestation of Hodgkin's Lymphoma -

1. Painless lymph Node enlargement

2. Diarrhoea

3. Vomiting

4. Leucocytosis

 

Q.94 Most definitive diagnostic measure for pulmonary embolism?

1. CT Scan

2. Pulmonary angiography

3. Positron emission tomography

4. MRI

 

 

Q.95 Most common cause of tonsillitis?

1. E. Coli

2. Staphylococci

3. Streptococci

4. Pneumococci

 

 

Q.96 Most prominent Cause of lung cancer-

1. Smoking

2. Sunlight

3. Alcoholism

4. High fat diet

Q.97 Most common side effect of Antineoplastic agents?

1. Nausea

2. Vomiting

3. Constipation

4. Alopecia

 

 

 

Q.98. Before giving blood transfusion, a nurse must note the date, time of collection and must be aware that packed RBC’s can be stored up to-

1. 25 days

2. 35 days

3. 45 days

4. 55 days

 

 

Q.99. When a client sustains a deep partial-thickness burn because of severe sunburn. The nurse teaches that the best first aid measure is –

1. Cool, Moist towels

2. Dry, sterile dressings

3. Analgesic sunburn spray

4. Vitamin A and D ointment

Q.100. Which of the following is considered to be most effective and treatment of choice for phobic disorders ?

1. Family therapy

2. Psychoanalysis

3. Behavior therapy

4. Interpersonal psychotherapy

 

Answers

 

1.A          2.A          3.D          4.C          5.B

 

6.B          7.C          8.B          9.C          10.B

 

11.C        12.C        13.B        14.A        15.C

 

16.C        17.B        18.D        19.D        20.B

 

21.C        22.A        23.C        24.D        25.D

 

26.A        27.D        28.C        29.A        30.A

 

31.C        32.A        33.B        34.A        35.A

 

36.D        37.A        38.A        39.B        40.C

 

41.C        42.B        43.C        44.A        45.C

 

46.C        47.A        48.A        49.D        50.C

 

51.D        52.A        53.C        54.D        55.A

 

56.A        57.C        58.C        59.B        60.B

 

61.B        62.C        63.D        64.C        65.A

 

66.D        67.C        68.B        69.A        70.C

 

71.C        72.B        73.D        74.A        75.A

 

76.A        77.A        78.D        79.C        80.A

 

81.A        82.A        83.C        84.C        85.B

 

86.C        87.B        88.C        89.C        90.A

 

91.B        92.B        93.A        94.B        95.C

 

96.A        97.D        98.B        99.A        100.B

 

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