Nursing model paper series 2 – paper 14
Q. 1 The nurse
is caring for a Patient after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a
fractured tibia, and bone is noted protruding through the skin. Which action is
of priority?
A. Provide manual traction above and below the leg
B. Cover the bone area with a sterile dressing
C. Apply an ACE bandage around the entire lower limb
D. Place the client in the prone position
Q. 2. The RN on the oncology unit is preparing to mix
and administer amphotericin B to a Patient .Which action is contraindicated for
administering this drug IV?
A. Mix the drug with normal saline solution
B. Administer the drug over 4–6 hours
C. Hydrate with IV fluids 2 hours before the infusion
D. Premedicate the client with ordered acetaminophen
and diphenhydramine
Q. 3. A nurse is administering a blood transfusion to
a Patient on the oncology unit. Which
clinical manifestation indicates an acute hemolytic reaction to the blood?
A. Low back pain
B. A temperature of 101°F
C. Urticaria
D. Neck vein distention
Q. 4 The nurse caring for a Patient diagnosed with
metastatic cancer of the bone is exhibiting mental confusion and a BP of
150/100. Which laboratory value would correlate with the client’s symptoms
reflecting a com-mon complication with this diagnosis?
A. Potassium 5.2mEq/L
B. Calcium 13mg/dL
C. Inorganic phosphorus 1.7mEq/L
D. Sodium 138mEq/L
Q.5 A Patient with a stroke and malnutrition has been
placed on Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN). The nurse notes air entering the
Patient via the central line. Which initial
action is most appropriate?
A. Notify the physician
B. Elevate the head of the bed
C. Place the client in the left lateral decubitus
position
D. Stop the TPN and hang D5 1/2 NS
Q.6 The nurse is preparing a Patient for cervical
uterine radiation implant insertion. Which will be included in the teaching
plan?
A. TV or telephone use will not be allowed while the
implant is in place.
B. A Foley catheter is usually inserted.
C. A high-fiber diet is recommended.
D. Excretions will be considered radioactive.
Q.7 The nurse is caring for a Patient with a head
injury who has an intracranial pressure monitor in place. Assessment reveals an
ICP reading of 66. What is the nurse’s best action?
A. Notify the physician
B. Record the reading as the only action
C. Turn the client and recheck the reading
D. Place the client supine www.prncfet.com
Q. 8 The nurse is caring for a Patient with leukemia
who is receiving the drug doxorubicin. Which toxic effects of this drug would
be reported to the physician immediately?
A. Rales and distended neck veins
B. Red discoloration of the urine and output of 75mL
the previous hour
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Elevated BUN and dry, flaky skin
Q. 9 A Patient has developed diabetes insipidous after
removal of a pituitary tumor. Which finding would the nurse expect?
A. Polyuria
B. Hypertension
C. Polyphagia
D. Hyperkalemia
Q.10 A Patient with cancer received platelet infusions
24 hours ago. Which of the following assessment findings would indicate the
most therapeutic effect from the transfusions?
A. Hgb level increase from 8.9 to 10.6
B. Temperature reading of 99.4°F
C. White blood cell count of 11,000
D. Decrease in oozing of blood from IV site
Q.11 A
Patient is admitted with Parkinson’s
disease who has been taking Carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet) for 1 year. Which
clinical manifestation would be most important to report?
A. Dry mouth
B. Spasmodic eye winking
C. Dark urine
D. Dizziness
Q.12 The nurse who is caring for a Patient with cancer notes a WBC of 500 on the
laboratory results. Which intervention would be most appropriate to include in
the Patient’s plan of care?
A. Assess temperature every 4 hours because of risk
for hypothermia
B. Instruct the client to avoid large crowds and
people who are sick
C. Instruct in the use of a soft toothbrush
D. Assess for hematuria
Q.13 A Patient with Crohn’s disease requires TPN to
provide adequate nutrition. The nurse finds the TPN bag empty. What fluid would
the nurse select to hang until another bag is prepared in the pharmacy?
A. Lactated Ringers
B. Normal saline
C. D10W
D. Normosol R
Q. 14 The nurse is caring for a Patient with possible
cervical cancer. What clinical data would the nurse most likely find in the
Patient ’s history?
A. Post-coital vaginal bleeding
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Foul-smelling vaginal discharge
D. Hyperthermia
Q.15 The nurse caring for a Patient with
myasthenia gravis recognizes which of
the following as the priority nursing diagnosis?
A. Risk for injury
B. Acute pain
C. Ineffective airway clearance
D. Impaired mobility
Q.16 A Patient is scheduled to undergo a bone marrow
aspiration from the sternum. What position would the nurse assist the client
into for this procedure?
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Supine
C. Fowler’s
D. Lithotomy
Q.17 The nurse is caring for a Patient with a head
injury who has increased ICP. The physician plans to reduce the cerebral edema
by constricting cerebral blood vessels. Which physician order would serve this
purpose?
A. Hyperventilation per mechanical ventilation
B. Insertion of a ventricular shunt
C. Furosemide
D. Solumedrol
Q.18 A Patient with a T6 injury 6 months ago develops
facial flushing and a BP of 210/106. After elevating the head of the bed, which
is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Notify the physician
B. Assess the client for a distended bladder
C. Apply oxygen at 3L/min
D. Increase the IV fluids
Q.19 The nurse is performing an admission history for
a Patient recovering from a stroke.
Medication history reveals the drug clopidogrel . Which clinical manifestation
alerts the nurse to an adverse effect of this drug?
A. Epistaxis
B. Abdominal distention
C. Nausea
D. Hyperactivity
Q.20 The nurse caring for a Patient with a head injury would recognize which
assessment finding as the most indicative of increased ICP?
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Headache
C. Dizziness
D. Papilledema
Q.21 A Patient
with angina is experiencing migraine headaches. The physician has prescribed
Sumatriptan succinate . Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A. Call the physician to question the prescription
order
B. Try to obtain samples for the client to take home
C. Perform discharge teaching regarding this drug
D. Consult social services for financial assistance
with obtaining the drug
Q.22 A Patient
with COPD is in respiratory failure. Which of the following results would be
the most sensitive indicator that the client requires a mechani-cal ventilator?
A. PCO2 58
B. SaO2 90
C. PH 7.23
D. HCO3 30
Q. 23 The nurse in the emergency room is caring for a
Patient with multiple rib fractures and a pulmonary contusion. Assessment
reveals a respiratory rate of 38, a heart rate of 136, and restlessness. Which
associated assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
A. Occasional hemoptysis
B. Midline trachea with wheezing on auscultation
C. Subcutaneous air and absent breath sounds
D. Pain when breathing deeply, with rales in the upper
lobes
Q.24 The nurse is caring for a Patient with
myasthenias gravis who is having trouble breathing. The nurse would encourage
which of the following positions for maximal lung expansion?
A. Supine with no pillow, to maintain patent airway
B. Side-lying with back support
C. Prone with head turned to one side
D. Sitting or in high Fowler’s
Q. 25 The nurse
is caring for Patients on a respiratory unit. Upon receiving the following
client reports, which client should be seen first?
A. Client with emphysema expecting discharge
B. Bronchitis client receiving IV antibiotics
C. Bronchitis client with edema and neck vein
distention
D. COPD client with PO2 of 85
26 A Patient
has sustained a severe head injury and damaged the preoccipital lobe. The nurse
should remain particularly alert for which of the follow-ing problems?
A. Visual impairment
B. Swallowing difficulty
C. Impaired judgment
D. Hearing impairment
Q. 27 The nurse
is caring for a Patient with epilepsy who is to receive Dilantin 100mg IV push.
The client has an IV of D51/2NS infusing at 100mL/hr. When administering the
Dilantin, the nurse should first:
A. Obtain an ambu bag and put it at bedside
B. Insert a 16g IV catheter
C. Flush the IV line with normal saline
D. Premedicate with phenergan IV push
Q.28 A Patient
with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol and Lasix. The nurse
recognizes that these two drugs are given to reverse which effect?
A. Energy failure
B. Excessive intracellular calcium accumulation
C. Cellular edema
D. Excessive glutamate release
Q.29 The nurse is assessing a Patient upon arrival to
the emergency department. Partial airway obstruction is suspected. Which
clinical manifestation is a late sign of airway obstruction?
A. Rales auscultated in breath sounds
B. Restlessness
C. Cyanotic ear lobes
D. Inspiratory stridor
Q.30 The nurse is working in the trauma unit of the
emergency room when a 24-year-old female is admitted after an MVA. The Patient
is bleeding profusely and a blood transfusion is ordered. Which would the nurse
be pre-pared to administer without a type and crossmatch?
A. AB positive
B. AB negative
C. O positive
D. O negative
Q.31 When preparing a Patient for magnetic resonance
imaging, the nurse should implement which of the following?
A. Obtain informed consent and administer atropine
0.4mg
B. Scrub the injection site for 15 minutes
C. Remove any jewelry and inquire about metal implants
D. Administer Benadryl 50mg/mL IV
Q.32 Upon admission to the hospital, a Patient reports
having ―the worst headache I’ve ever had. The nurse should give the highest
priority to:
A. Administering pain medication
B. Starting oxygen
C. Performing neuro checks
D. Inserting a Foley catheter
Q.33 The nurse is caring for a Patient with an
acoustic neuroma brain tumor. The location of this tumor warrants which of the
following nursing diagnosis as the highest priority?
A. High risk for constipation
B. Fluid volume deficit
C. Ineffective coping
D. High risk for injury
Q. 34 The i Patient s admitted to the ER with multiple
rib fractures on the right. The nurse’s assessment reveals that an area over
the right clavicle is puffy and that there is a ―crackling‖ noise with
palpation. The nurse should further assess the client for which of the
following problems?
A. Flail chest
B. Subcutaneous emphysema
C. Infiltrated subclavian IV
D. Pneumothorax
Q.35 A Patient has an order for Demerol 75mg and
atropine 0.4mg IM as a pre-operative medication. The Demerol vial contains
50mg/mL, and atropine is available 0.4mg/mL. How many milliliters will the
nurse administer in total?
A. 1.0
B. 1.7
C. 2.5
D. 3.0
Q.36 Nimodipine is ordered for the Patient with a
ruptured cerebral aneurysm. The nurse recognizes that the desired effect of
this drug is to:
A. Prevent the influx of calcium into cells
B. Restore the client’s blood pressure to a normal reading
C. Prevent the inflammatory process
D. Dissolve the clot that has formed
Q.37 A is Patient admitted to the hospital with
seizures. The client has jerking of the right arm and twitching of the face,
but is alert and aware of the seizure. This behavior is characteristic of which
type of seizure?
A. Absence
B. Complex partial
C. Simple partial
D. Tonic-clonic
Q.38 The intensive care unit is full and the emergency
room just called in a report on a ventilator-dependent Patient who is being
admitted to the medical surgical unit. It would be essential that the nurse
have which piece of equipment at the Patient ’s bedside?
A. Cardiac monitor
B. Intravenous controller
C. Manual resuscitator
D. Oxygen by nasal cannula
Q.39 The nurse is caring for a Patient on a ventilator
that is set on intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV). Assessment on the
ventilator is IMV mode of 8 breaths per minute. The nurse assesses the
Patient’s respiratory rate of 13 per minute. These findings indicate that:
A. The client
is fighting the ventilator.
B. Pressure support ventilation is being used.
C. Additional breaths are being delivered by the
ventilator.
D. The client is breathing five additional breaths on
his own.
Q.40 The nurse has given instructions on pursed-lip
breathing to a client with COPD. Which statement by the Patient would indicate
effective teaching?
A. I should inhale through my mouth.
B. I should tighten my abdominal muscles with
inhalation.
C. I should contract my abdominal muscles with
exhalation.
D. I should make inhalation twice as long as
exhalation
Q.41 A Patient is receiving aminophylline IV. The
nurse monitors the theophylline blood level and assesses that the level is
within therapeutic range when it is:
A. 5ug/mL
B. 8ug/mL
C. 15ug/mL
D. 25ug/Ml
Q.42 The nurse is assessing the arterial blood gases
(ABG) of a chest trauma Patient with the results of pH 7.35, PO2 85, PCO2 55,
and HCO3 27. These ABG values indicate that the client is in:
A. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
B. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
C. Compensated respiratory acidosis
D. Compensated metabolic acidosis
Q. 43 A pneumonectomy is performed on a Patient with
lung cancer. Which of the following would probably be omitted from the client’s
plan of care?
A. Closed chest drainage
B. Pain-control measures
C. Supplemental oxygen
D. Coughing and deep-breathing exercises
Q.44 When planning the care for a Patient after a
posterior fossa (infratentorial) craniotomy, which action is contraindicated?
A. Keeping the client flat on one side
B. Elevating the head of the bed 30°
C. Log-rolling or turning as a unit
D. Keeping the neck in a neutral position
Q.45 The nurse is performing discharge teaching on a
Patient with ulcerative colitis who has been placed on a low-residue diet.
Which food would need to be eliminated from this Patient ’s diet?
A. Roasted chicken
B. Noodles
C. Cooked broccoli
D. Roast beef
Q.46 The nurse is assisting a Patient with
diverticulitis to select appropriate foods. Which food should be avoided?
A. Bran
B. Fresh peach
C. Tomato and cucumber salad
D. Dinner roll www.prncfet.com
Q.47 A Patient is admitted with a possible bowel
obstruction. Which question during the nursing history is least helpful in
obtaining information regarding this diagnosis?
A. Tell me about your pain.
B. What does your vomit look like?
C. Describe your usual diet.
D. Have you noticed an increase in abdominal size?
Q. 48 The nurse is caring for a Patient with epilepsy
who is being treated with carbamazepine . Which laboratory value might indicate
a serious side effect of this drug?
A. BUN 10mg/dL
B. Hemoglobin 13.0gm/dL
C. WBC 4,000/mm3
D. Platelets 200,000/mm3
Q.49 A Patient is admitted with a tumor in the
parietal lobe. Which symptoms would be expected due to this tumor’s location?
A. Hemiplegia
B. Aphasia
C. Paresthesia
D. Nausea
Q.50 A Patient weighing 150 pounds has received burns
over 50% of his body at 1200 hours. Using the Parkland formula, calculate the
expected amount of fluid that the client should receive by 2000 hours.
A. 3,400
B. 6,800
C. 10,200
D. 13,600
Q. 51 A Patient is admitted to the emergency room with
a gunshot wound to the right arm. After dressing the wound and administering
the prescribed antibiotic, the nurse should:-
A. Ask the client if he has any medication allergies
B. Check the client’s immunization record
C. Apply a splint to immobilize the arm
D. Administer medication for pain
Q. 52 The nurse is caring for a client with suspected
endometrial cancer. Which symptom is associated with endometrial cancer?
A. Frothy vaginal discharge
B. Thick, white vaginal discharge
C. Purulent vaginal discharge
D. Watery vaginal discharge
Q. 53 A client with Parkinson’s disease is scheduled
for stereotactic surgery. Which finding indicates that the surgery had its
intended effect?
A The client no longer has intractable tremors.
B. The client has sufficient production of dopamine.
C. The client no longer requires any medication.
D. The client will have increased production of
serotonin.
Q. 54 A client with AIDS asks the nurse why he cannot
have a pitcher of water left at his bedside. The nurse should tell the client
that:-
A. It would be best for him to drink ice water
B. He should drink several glasses of juice instead
C. It makes it easier to keep a record of his intake
D. He should drink only freshly run water
Q.55 An elderly client is diagnosed with interstitial
cystitis. Which finding differentiates interstitial cystitis from other forms
of cystitis?
A. The client is asymptomatic.
B. The urine is free of bacteria.
C. The urine contains blood.
D. Males are affected more often.
Q.56 The mother of a male child with cystic fibrosis
tells the nurse that she hopes her son’s children won’t have the disease. The
nurse is aware that:-
A. There is a 25% chance that his children will have
cystic fibrosis.
B. Most of the males with cystic fibrosis are sterile.
C. There is a 50% chance that his children will be
carriers.
D. Most males with cystic fibrosis are capable of
having children, so genetic counseling is advised.
Q. 57 A 6-month-old is hospitalized with symptoms of
botulism. What aspect of the infant’s history is associated with Clostridium
botulinum infection?
A. The infant sucks on his fingers and toes.
B. The mother sweetens the infant’s cereal with honey.
C. The infant was switched to soy-based formula.
D. The father recently purchased an aquarium.
Q.58 The mother of a 6-year-old with autistic disorder
tells the nurse that her son has been much more difficult to care for since the
birth of his sister. The best explanation for changes in the child’s behavior
is:-
A. The child did not want a sibling.
B. The child was not adequately prepared for the
baby’s arrival.
C. The child’s daily routine has been upset by the
birth of his sister.
D. The child is just trying to get the parent’s
attention.
Q.59 The parents of a child with cystic fibrosis ask
what determines the prog-nosis of the disease. The nurse knows that the
greatest determinant of the prognosis is:-
A. The degree of pulmonary involvement
B. The ability to maintain an ideal weight
C. The secretion of lipase by the pancreas
D. The regulation of sodium and chloride excretion
Q.60 The nurse is assessing a client hospitalized with
duodenal ulcer. Which finding should be reported to the doctor immediately?
A. BP 82/60, pulse 120
B. Pulse 68, respirations 24
C. BP 110/88, pulse 56
D. Pulse 82, respiration 16
Q.61. While caring for a client in the second stage of
labor, the nurse notices a pattern of early decelerations. The nurse should:
A. Notify the physician immediately
B. Turn the client on her left side
C. Apply oxygen via a tight face mask
D. Document the finding on the flow sheet
Q.62. The nurse is teaching the client with AIDS
regarding needed changes in food preparation. Which statement indicates that
the client understands the nurse’s teaching?
A. Adding fresh ground pepper to my food will improve
the flavor.
B. Meat should be thoroughly cooked to the proper
temperature.
C. Eating cheese and yogurt will prevent AIDS-related
diarrhea.
D. It is important to eat four to five servings of
fresh fruits and vegetables a day.
Q.63 The sputum of a client remains positive for the
tubercle bacillus even though the client has been taking isoniazid. The nurse
recognizes that the client should have a negative sputum culture within:
A. 2 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 8 weeks
D. 12 weeks
64. Which person is at greatest risk for developing
Lyme’s disease?
A. Computer programmer
B. Elementary teacher
C. Veterinarian
D. Landscaper
Q. 65 The mother of a 1-year-old wants to know when
she should begin toilettraining her child. The nurse’s response is based on the
knowledge that sufficient sphincter control for toilet training is present by:
A. 12–15 months of age
B. 18–24 months of age
C. 26–30 months of age
D. 32–36 months of age
Q.66. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a
client with an ileostomy. The priority nursing diagnosis is:
A. Fluid volume deficit
B. Alteration in body image
C. Impaired oxygen exchange
D. Alteration in elimination
Q.67. The physician has prescribed cyanocobalamin for
a client follow-ing a gastric resection. Which lab result indicates that the
medication is having its intended effect?
A. Neutrophil count of 4500
B. Hgb of 14.2g
C. Platelet count of 250,000
D. Eosinophil count of 200
Q.68. A behavior-modification program has been started
for an adolescent with oppositional defiant disorder. Which statement describes
the use of behavior modification?
A. Distractors are used to interrupt repetitive or
unpleasant thoughts.
B. Techniques using stressors and exercise are used to
increase awareness of body defenses.
C. A system of tokens and rewards is used as positive
reinforcement.
D. Appropriate behavior is learned through observing
the action of models.
Q.69. Following eruption of the primary teeth, the mother
can promote chewing by giving the toddler:
A. Pieces of hot dog
B. Carrot sticks
C. Pieces of cereal
D. Raisins
Q.70 The nurse is infusing total parenteral nutrition
(TPN). The primary purpose for closely monitoring the client’s intake and
output is:
A. To determine how quickly the client is metabolizing
the solution
B. To determine whether the client’s oral intake is
sufficient
C. To detect the development of hypovolemia
D. To decrease the risk of fluid overload
Q. 71. An obstetrical client with diabetes has an
amniocentesis at 28 weeks gestation. Which test indicates the degree of fetal
lung maturity?
A. Alpha-fetoprotein
B. Estriol level
C. Indirect Coomb’s
D. Lecithin sphingomyelin ratio
Q. 72. Which nursing assessment indicates that
involutional changes have occurred in a client who is 3 days postpartum?
A. The fundus is firm and 3 finger widths below the
umbilicus.
B. The client has a moderate amount of lochia serosa.
C. The fundus is firm and even with the umbilicus.
D. The uterus is approximately the size of a small
grapefruit.
Q. 73. When administering total parenteral nutrition,
the nurse should assess the client for signs of rebound hypoglycemia. The nurse
knows that rebound hypoglycemia occurs when:
A. The infusion rate is too rapid.
B. The infusion is discontinued without tapering.
C. The solution is infused through a peripheral line.
D. The infusion is administered without a filter
Q. 74. A client scheduled for disc surgery tells the
nurse that she frequently uses the herbal supplement kava-kava (piper
methysticum). The nurse should notify the doctor because kava-kava:
A. Increases the effects of anesthesia and
post-operative analgesia
B. Eliminates the need for antimicrobial therapy
following surgery
C. Increases urinary output, so a urinary catheter
will be needed post-operatively
D. Depresses the immune system, so infection is more
of a problem
Q. 75 The physician has ordered 50mEq of potassium
chloride for a client with a potassium level of 2.5mEq. The nurse should
administer the medication:
A. Slow, continuous IV push over 10 minutes
B. Continuous infusion over 30 minutes
C. Controlled infusion over 5 hours
D. Continuous infusion over 24 hours
Q.76. The nurse reviewing the lab results of a client
receiving cyclophosphamide for Hodgkin’s lymphoma finds the following: WBC
4,200, RBC 3,800,000, platelets 25,000, and serum creatinine 1.0mg. The nurse
recognizes that the greatest risk for the client at this time is:
A. Overwhelming infection
B. Bleeding
C. Anemia
D. Renal failure
Q. 77. While administering a chemotherapeutic
vesicant, the nurse notes that there is a lack of blood return from the IV
catheter. The nurse should:
A. Stop the medication from infusing
B. Flush the IV catheter with normal saline
C. Apply a tourniquet and call the doctor
D. Continue the IV and assess the site for edema
Q. 78. A client with cervical cancer has a radioactive
implant. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse’s
teaching regarding radioactive implants?
A. I won’t be able to have visitors while getting
radiation therapy.
B. I will have a urinary catheter while the implant is
in place.
C. I can be up to the bedside commode while the
implant is in place.
D. I won’t have any side effects from this type of
therapy.
Q. 79. The nurse is teaching circumcision care to the
mother of a newborn. Which statement indicates that the mother needs further
teaching?
A. I will apply a petroleum gauze to the area with
each diaper change.
B. I will clean the area carefully with each diaper
change.
C. I can place a heat lamp to the area to speed up the
healing process.
D. I should carefully observe the area for signs of
infection.
Q. 80 A client admitted for treatment of bacterial
pneumonia has an order for intravenous ampicillin. Which specimen should be
obtained prior to administering the medication?
A. Routine urinalysis
B. Complete blood count
C. Serum electrolytes
D. Sputum for culture and sensitivity
Q. 81 While obtaining information about the client’s
current medication use, the nurse learns that the client takes ginkgo to
improve mental alertness. The nurse should tell the client to:-
A. Report signs of bruising or bleeding to the doctor
B. Avoid sun exposure while using the herbal
C. Purchase only those brands with FDA approval
D. Increase daily intake of vitamin E
Q. 82 A client with Hodgkin’s lymphoma is receiving
cisplatin. To help prevent nephrotoxicity, the nurse should:-
A. Slow the infusion rate
B. Make sure the client is well hydrated
C. Record the intake and output every shift
D. Tell the client to report ringing in the ears
Q. 83 The chart of a client hospitalized for a total
hip repair reveals that the client is colonized with MRSA. The nurse
understands that the client:-
A. Will not display symptoms of infection
B. Is less likely to have an infection
C. Can be placed in the room with others
D. Cannot colonize others with MRSA
Q. 84 A client receiving vancomycin has a serum level
of 20mcg/mL. The nurse knows that the therapeutic range for vancomycin is:-
A. 5–10mcg/mL
B. 10–25mcg/mL
C. 25–40mcg/mL
D. 40–60mcg/mL
Q. 85 A client is admitted with symptoms of
pseudomembranous colitis. Which finding is associated with Clostridium
difficile?
A. Diarrhea containing blood and mucus
B. Cough, fever, and shortness of breath
C. Anorexia, weight loss, and fever
D. Development of ulcers on the lower extremities
Q. 86. Which vitamin should be administered with INH
(isoniazid) in order to prevent possible nervous system side effects?
A. Thiamine
B. Niacin
C. Pyridoxine
D. Riboflavin
Q.87. A client is admitted with suspected
Legionnaires’ disease. Which factor increases the risk of developing
Legionnaires’ disease?
A. Treatment of arthritis with steroids
B. Foreign travel
C. Eating fresh shellfish twice a week
D. Doing volunteer work at the local hospital
Q. 88. A client who uses a respiratory inhaler asks
the nurse to explain how he can know when half his medication is empty so that
he can refill his prescription. The nurse should tell the client to:
A. Shake the inhaler and listen for the contents
B. Drop the inhaler in water to see if it floats
C. Check for a hissing sound as the inhaler is used
D. Press the inhaler and watch for the mist
Q. 89. The nurse is caring for a client following a
right nephrolithotomy. Postoperatively, the client should be positioned:-
A. On the right side
B. Supine
C. On the left side
D. Prone
Q. 90. A client is admitted with sickle cell crises
and sequestration. Upon assessing the client, the nurse would expect to find:
A. Decreased blood pressure
B. Moist mucus membranes
C. Decreased respirations
D. Increased blood pressure
Q. 91 A healthcare worker is referred to the nursing
office with a suspected latex allergy. The first symptom of latex allergy is
usually:
A. Oral itching after eating bananas
B. Swelling of the eyes and mouth
C. Difficulty in breathing
D. Swelling and itching of the hands
Q. 92. A client is admitted with disseminated herpes
zoster. According to the Centers for Disease Control Guidelines for Infection
Control:
A. Airborne precautions will be needed.
B. No special precautions will be needed.
C. Contact precautions will be needed.
D. Droplet precautions will be needed.
Q. 93. Silver nitrate dressings are applied to the
legs of a client with deep partial thickness burns. The nurse should:
A. Change the dressings once per shift
B. Moisten the dressing with sterile water
C. Change the dressings only when they become soiled
D. Moisten the dressing with normal saline
Q. 94. The nurse is preparing to administer an
injection to a 6-month-old when she notices a white dot in the infant’s right
pupil. The nurse should:
A. Report the finding to the physician immediately
B. Record the finding and give the infant’s injection
C. Recognize that the finding is a variation of normal
D. Check both eyes for the presence of the red reflex
Q. 95. A client is diagnosed with stage II Hodgkin’s
lymphoma. The nurse recognizes that the client has involvement:
A. In a single lymph node or single site
B. In more than one node or single organ on the same
side of the diaphragm
C. In lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm
D. In disseminated organs and tissues
Q. 96 A client has been receiving methotrexate for
severe rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse should tell the client to avoid taking:
A. Aspirin
B. Multivitamins
C. Omega 3 fish oils
D. Acetaminophen
Q. 97. The physician has ordered a low-residue diet
for a client with Crohn’s disease. Which food is not permitted in a low-residue
diet?
A. Mashed potatoes
B. Smooth peanut butter
C. Fried fish
D. Rice
Q. 98. A client hospitalized with cirrhosis has
developed abdominal ascites. The nurse should provide the client with snacks
that provide additional:
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Protein
D. Fat
Q. 99. A diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is often
delayed because of the varied symptoms experienced by those affected with the disease.
Which symptom is most common in those with multiple sclerosis?
A. Resting tremors
B. Double vision
C. Flaccid paralysis
D. Pill-rolling tremors
Q. 100. After attending a company picnic, several
clients are admitted to the emergency room with E. coli food poisoning. The
most likely source of infection is:
A. Hamburger
B. Hot dog
C. Potato salad
D. Baked beans
Answers
1.B
2.A 3.A 4.B 5.C
6.B 7.A 8.A 9.A 10.D
11.B 12.B 13.C 14.A 15.C
16.C 17.A 18.B 19.A 20.D
21.A 22.C 23.C 24.D 25.C
26.A 27.C 28.C 29.C 30.D
31.C 32.C 33.D 34.D 35.C
36.A 37.C 38.C 39.D 40.C
41.C 42.C 43.A 44.B 45.C
46.C 47.C 48.C 49.C 50.B
51.B 52.D 53.A 54.D 55.B
56.B 57.B 58.C 59.A 60.A
61.D 62.B 63.D 64.D 65.B
66.A 67.B 68.C 69.C 70.C
71.D 72.A 73.B 74.A 75.C
76.B 77.A 78.B 79.C 80.D
81.A 82.B 83.A 84.B 85.A
86.C 87.A 88.B 89.C 90.A
91.D 92.A 93.B 94.A 95.B
96.B 97.C 98.C 99.B 100.A
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