Nursing model paper series 2 – paper 15
Q. 1 The nurse is caring for a client post-op femoral
popliteal bypass graft. Which post-operative assessment finding would require
immediate physician notification?
A. Edema of the extremity and pain at the incision
site
B. A temperature of 99.6°F and redness of the incision
C. Serous drainage noted at the surgical area
D. A loss of posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis
pulses
Q. 2. A client admitted with gastroenteritis and a
potassium level of 2.9mEq/dL has been placed on telemetry. Which ECG finding
would the nurse expect to find due to the client’s potassium results?
A. A depressed ST segment
B. An elevated T wave
C. An absent P wave
D. A flattened QRS
Q. 3 A client is experiencing acute abdominal pain.
Which abdominal assess-ment sequence is appropriate for the nurse to use for
examination of the abdomen?
A. Inspect, palpate, auscultate, percuss
B. Inspect, auscultate, palpate, percuss
C. Auscultate, inspect, palpate, percuss
D. Percuss, palpate, auscultate, inspect
Q. 4. The nurse is to administer a cleansing enema to
a client scheduled for colon surgery. Which client position would be
appropriate?
A. Prone
B. Supine
C. Left Sim’s
D. Dorsal recumbent
Q. 5. The nurse is caring for a client following a
crushing injury to the chest. Which finding would be most indicative of a
tension pneumothorax?
A. Frothy hemoptysis
B. Trachea shift toward the unaffected side of the
chest
C. Subcutaneous emphysema noted at the anterior chest
D. Opening chest wound with a whistle sound emitting
from the area
Q. 6. The nurse receives a report from the paramedic
on four trauma victims. Which client would need to be treated first? A client
with:
A. Lower rib fractures and a stable chest wall
B. Bruising on the anterior chest wall and a possible
pulmonary contusion
C. Gun shot wound with open pneumothorax unstabilized
D. Dyspnea, stabilized with intubation and manual
resuscitator
Q. 7. The nurse is discharging a client with asthma
who has a prescription for zafirlukast (Accolate). Which comment by the client
would indicate a need for further teaching?
A. I should take this medication with meals.
B. I need to report flulike symptoms to my doctor.
C. My doctor might order liver tests while I’m on this
drug.
D. If I’m already having an asthma attack, this drug
will not stop it.
Q. 8 A client is 4 hours post-op left carotid
endarterectomy. Which assess-ment finding would cause the nurse the most
concern?
A. Temperature 99.4°F, heart rate 110, respiratory
rate 24
B. Drowsiness, urinary output of 50mL the past hour,
1cm blood drainage noted on surgical dressing
C. BP 120/60, lethargic, right-sided weakness
D. Alert and oriented, BP 168/96, heart rate 70
Q. 9. The RN is making assignments on a 12-bed unit.
Staff consists of one RN and two certified nursing assistants. Which client
should be self-assigned?
A. A client receiving decadron for emphysema
B. A client with chest trauma and a new onset of
hemoptysis
C. A client with rib fractures and an O2 saturation of
93%
D. A client 2 days post-operative lung surgery with a
pulse oximetry of 92%
Q. 10. The nurse caring for a client after a suspected
CVA recognizes which nursing diagnosis as the priority?
A. Impaired communication
B. Sensory perceptual alteration
C. Alteration in cerebral tissue perfusion
D. Impaired mobility
Q. 11. A client is being discharged on Coumadin after
hospitalization for a deep vein thrombosis. The nurse recognizes that which
food would be restricted while the client is on this medication?
A. Lettuce
B. Apples
C. Potatoes
D. Macaroni
Q.12. Which assessment finding in a client with COPD
indicates to the nurse that the respiratory problem is chronic?
A. Wheezing on exhalation
B. Productive
cough
C. Clubbing of fingers
D. Cyanosis
Q. 13 A client who has just undergone a laparoscopic
cholecystectomy com-plains of ―free air pain.‖ What would be your best action?
A. Ambulate the client
B. Instruct the client to breathe deeply and cough
C. Maintain the client on bed rest with his legs
elevated
D. Insert an NG tube to low wall suction
14. The RN is planning client assignments. Which is
the least appropriate task for the nursing assistant?
A. Assisting a COPD client admitted 2 days ago to get
up in the chair
B. Feeding a client with bronchitis who is paralyzed
on the right side
C. Accompanying a discharged emphysema client to the
transportation area
D. Assessing an emphysema client complaining of
difficulty breathing
15. When providing care for a client with
pancreatitis, the nurse would anticipate which of the following orders?
A. Force fluids to 3,000mL/24 hours
B. Insert a nasogastric tube and connect it to low
intermittent suction
C. Place the client in reverse Trendelenburg position
D. Place the client in enteric isolation
16. The nurse is performing a neurological assessment
on a client admitted with TIAs. Assessment findings reveal an absence of the
gag reflex. The nurse suspects injury to:
A. XII (hypoglossal)
B. X (vagus)
C. IX (glossopharyngeal)
D. VII (facial)
17. The nurse arrives at a motorcycle accident and
finds the client unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. After calling for a
spectator to help, what would be the nurse’s next action?
A. Ventilate with a mouth-to-mask device
B. Begin chest compressions
C. Administer a precordial thump
D. Open the airway
Q. 18 A client with gallstones and obstructive
jaundice is experiencing severe itching. The physician has prescribed
cholestyramine .The client asks, -How does this drug work?‖ What is the nurse’s
best response?
A. It blocks histamine, reducing the allergic
response.
B. It inhibits the enzyme responsible for bile
excretion.
C. It decreases the amount of bile in the gallbladder.
D. It binds with bile acids and is excreted in bowel
movements with stool.
Q. 19. A client with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)
requires an illeostomy. The nurse would instruct the client to do which of the
following measures as an essential part of caring for the stoma?
A. Perform massage of the stoma three times a day
B. Include high-fiber foods in the diet, especially
nuts
C. Limit fluid intake to prevent loose stools
D. Cleanse the peristomal skin meticulously
Q. 20. Diphenoxylate hydrochloride and atropine
sulfate (Lomotil) is prescribed for the client with ulcerative colitis. The
nurse realizes that the medication is having a therapeutic effect when the
following is noted:
A. There is an absence of peristalsis.
B. The number of diarrhea stools decreases.
C. Cramping in the abdomen has increased.
D. Abdominal girth size increases.
Q. 21. A nurse is assisting the physician with chest
tube removal. To remove the chest tube, the client is instructed to:
A. Take a deep breath, exhale, and bear down
B. Hold the breath for 2 minutes and exhale slowly
C. Exhale upon actual removal of the tube
D. Continually breathe deeply in and out during
removal
Q. 22. A client with advanced Alzheimer’s disease has
been prescribed haloperidol. What clinical manifestation suggests that the
client is experiencing side effects from this medication?
A. Cough
B. Tremors
C. Diarrhea
D. Pitting edema
Q. 23 A student in a cardiac unit is performing
auscultation of a client’s heart. The nurse recognizes that the student is
performing pulmonic auscultation correctly when the stethoscope is placed:
A. Between the apex and the sternum
B. At the fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular
line
C. At the second intercostal space, left of the
sternum
D. At the manubrium
Q. 24 A client with Alzheimer’s disease has been
prescribed donepezil. Which information should the nurse include in the
teaching plan for a client on Aricept?
A. Take the medication with meals.
B. The medicine can cause dizziness, so rise slowly.
C. If a dose is skipped, take two the next time.
D. The pill can cause an increase in heart rate.
Q. 25 A client who had major abdominal surgery is
having delayed healing of the wound. Which laboratory test result would most
closely correlate with this problem?
A. Decreased albumin
B. Decreased creatinine
C. Increased calcium
D. Increased sodium
Q. 26 A client is admitted to the medical-surgical
unit with a report of severe hematemesis. The nurse should give priority to:-
A. Performing an assessment
B. Obtaining a blood permit
C. Initiating an IV with a large-bore needle
D. Inserting an NG tube
Q. 27 The nurse caring for a client with a suspected
peptic ulcer recognizes which exam as the one most reliable in diagnosing the
disease?
A. Upper-gastrointestinal x-ray
B. Gastric analysis
C. Endoscopy
D. Barium studies
Q.28 On the second post-operative day after a subtotal
thyroidectomy, the client tells the nurse, I feel numbness and my face is
twitching. What is the nurse’s best initial action?
A. Offer mouth care
B. Loosen the neck dressing
C. Notify the physician
D. Document the finding as the only action
Q. 29. A client with adult respiratory distress
syndrome has been placed on mechanical ventilation with PEEP. Which finding
would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing the undesirable
effect of an increase in airway and chest pressure?
A. A PO2 of 88
B. Rales on auscultation
C. Blood pressure decrease to 90/48 from 120/70
D. A decrease in spontaneous respiration
Q. 30. A nurse is teaching a group of teenagers the
correct technique for applying a condom. Which point would the nurse include in
the teaching plan?
A. The condom can be reused one time.
B. Unroll the condom all the way over the erect penis.
C. Apply petroleum jelly to reduce irritation.
D. Place water in the tip of the condom before use.
Q. 31. The nurse recognizes which of the following as
the priority nursing diagnosis for the client in thyroid crisis?
A. Risk for ineffective breathing pattern
B. Risk for imbalanced body temperature
C. Risk for decreased cerebral tissue perfusion
D. Activity intolerance
Q. 32. The nurse in the ER has received report of four
clients en route to the emergency department. Which client should the nurse see
first? A client with:
A. Third-degree burns to the face and neck area, with
singed nasal hairs
B. Second-degree burns to each leg and thigh area, who
is alert and oriented
C. A chemical burn that has been removed and liberally
flushed before admission
D. An electrical burn entering and leaving on the same
side of the body
Q. 33 A client with epilepsy has a vagal nerve
stimulator in place. Which would indicate that the device is working properly?
A. The client’s voice changes when the stimulator is
operating.
B. Hiccups occur with each stimulation.
C. The client can feel vibrations in the area of the
vagal nerve stimulator when operational.
D. The client’s radial pulse obliterates when the
stimulator is activated.
Q. 34. Which of the following clients has the highest
risk for pulmonary complications after surgery?
A. A 24-year-old with open reduction internal fixation
of
the ulnar
B. A 45-year-old with an open cholecystectomy
C. A 36-year-old after a hysterectomy
D. A 50-year-old after a lumbar laminectomy
Q. 35. What clinical manifestation is most indicative
of possible carbon monoxide poisoning?
A. Pulse oximetry reading of 80%
B. Expiratory stridor and nasal flaring
C. Cherry red color to the mucous membranes
D. Presence of carbonaceous particles in the sputum
Q. 36. A client is admitted with a ruptured spleen
following a four-wheeler accident. In preparation for surgery, the nurse
suspects that the client is in the compensatory stage of shock because of which
clinical manifestation?
A. Blood pressure 120/70, confusion, heart rate 120
B. Crackles on chest auscultation, mottled skin,
lethargy
C. Skin color jaundice, urine output less than 30mL
the past hour, heart rate 170
D. Rapid shallow respirations, unconscious, petechiae
anterior chest
Q. 37 A client is post-operative laryngectomy for
cancer of the larynx. Which nursing diagnosis would be the priority for this
client?
A. Disturbed body image related to major changes in
the structure and function of the larynx
B. Ineffective airway clearance related to excess
mucus in air-way, due to surgical procedure
C. Imbalanced nutrition less than body requirement
related to the inability to have food intake, due to dysphagia
D. Impaired verbal communication related to inability
to talk, due to removal of larynx
Q. 38. A client arrives in the emergency room with
severe burns of the hands, right arm, face, and neck. The nurse needs to start
an IV. Which site would be most suitable for this client?
A. Top of client’s right hand
B. Left antecubital fossa
C. Top of either foot
D. Left forearm
Q. 39. Which clinical manifestation during the actual
bone marrow transplantation alerts you to the possibility of an adverse
reaction?
A. Fever
B. Red urine
C. Hypertension
D. Shortness of breath
Q. 40. The nurse is assessing the integumentary system
of a dark-skinned individual. Which area would be the most likely to show a
skin cancer lesion?
A. Chest
B. Arms
C. Face
D. Palms
Q. 41 A client with a gastrointestinal bleed has an NG
tube to low continuous wall suction. Which technique is the correct procedure
for the nurse to utilize when assessing bowel sounds?
A. Insert 10mL of air in the NG tube and listen over
the abdomen with a stethoscope
B. Clamp the tube while listening to the abdomen with
a stethoscope
C. Irrigate the tube with 30mL of NS while
auscultating the abdomen
D. Turn the suction on high and auscultate over the
naval area
Q. 42. A burn client’s care plan reveals an expected outcome
of no localized or systemic infection. Which assessment by the nurse supports
this outcome?
A. Wound culture results that show minimal bacteria
B. Cloudy, foul-smelling urine output
C. White blood cell count of 14,000
D. Temperature of 101°F
Q. 43. The nurse is discharging a client with a
prescription of eyedrops. Which observation by the nurse would indicate a need
for further client teaching?
A. Shaking of the suspension to mix the medication
B. Administering a second eyedrop medication immediately
after the first one was instilled
C. Washing the hands before and after the
administration of the drops
D. Holding the lower lid down without pressing the
eyeball to instill the drops
Q. 44. The nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia
who is allergic to penicillin. Which antibiotic is safest to administer to this
client?
A. Cefazolin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Erythromycin
D. Ceftriaxone
Q. 45. The nurse notes the following laboratory test
results on a 24-hour post-burn client. Which abnormality should be reported to
the physician immediately?
A. Potassium 7.5mEq/L
B. Sodium 131mEq/L
C. Arterial pH 7.34
D. Hematocrit 52%
Q. 46 The nurse is observing a student nurse
administering ear drops to a 2-year-old. Which observation by the nurse would
indicate correct technique?
A. Holds the child’s head up and extended
B. Places the head in chin-tuck position
C. Pulls the pinna down and back
D. Irrigates the ear before administering medication
Q. 47. The nurse is caring for a client after a burn.
Which assessment finding best indicates that the client’s respiratory efforts
are currently adequate?
A. The client is able to talk.
B. The client is alert and oriented.
C. The client’s O2 saturation is 97%.
D. The client’s chest movements are uninhibited.
Q. 48. The nurse caring for a client in shock
recognizes that the glomerular filtration rate of the kidneys will fail if the
client’s mean arterial pressure falls below:
A. 140
B. 120
C. 100
D. 80
Q. 49. The nurse is caring for a child with a
diagnosis of possible hydrocephalus. Which assessment data on the admission
history would be the most objective?
A. Anorexia
B. Vomiting
C. Head measurement
D. Temperature
Q. 50. Which type of leukemia is more common in older
adults?
A. Acute myelocytic leukemia
B. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic granulocytic leukemia
Q.51. Power obtained because of identification with
the leader symbolizes:
(A)Referent power
(B)Charismatic Power
(C)Legitimatic power
(D)Co–ercive power
Q.52. Who is acknowledged as Father of Modern
Management theory ?
(A)Henry Fayol
(B)Elton Mayo
(C)MC Gregor
(D)FW Taylor
Q.53.The term "schizophrenia" was coined by
(A)Krapelin
(B)Blessler
(C)Freud
(D)Richards
Q.54.A patient suffering with iron deficiency anemia
should include the following food items in her diet:
(A)Nuts and milk
(B)Coffee and tea
(C)Cooked oats and fish
(D)Oranges and dark green leafy vegetables
Q.55.Vaccination to be given after completion of 9 th
month of birth is
(A)DPT
(B)MMR
(C)BCG
(D)OPV
Q.56.The stage that designs curriculum is
(A)Formative
(B)Evaluative
(C)Directive
(D)Functional
Q.57.Gluconeogenesis is decreased by
(A)Glucagon
(B)Epinephrine
(C)Glucocorticoids
(D)Insulin
Q.58.Thick white mucous discharge from the female
genitalia is
(A)Labia
(B)Estrogen
(C)Hymen
(D)Smegma
Q.59.Which food item is avoided in a patient with
Hypertension ?
(A)Apples
(B)Bananas
(C)Steamed vegetables
(D)Smoked sausages
Q.60.WHO–ORS packet includes following, except
(A)Sodium chloride
(B)Potassium chloride
(C)Sodium bicarbonate
(D)Calcium carbonate
Q.61.Kangaroo mother care means
(A)Only mother to child
(B)Skin to skin holding of Infants
(C)Only father to child
(D)It is not related to human care.
Q.62._______ refers to the decreased psychoactive
effect of drug resulting from repeated exposure.
(A)Dependence
(B)Withdrawal
(C)Tolerance
(D)Harmful use
Q.63.Incontinence is observed in _______ stage of
dementia.
(A)Initial
(B)First
(C)Second
(D)Third
Q.64.The absorption of the fats and glycerol takes
place in the
(A)Ileum
(B)Stomach
(C)Large Intestine
(D)Cecum
Q.65.The cranial nerve which regulates biting, chewing
and swallowing is
(A)Trigeminal
(B)Oculomotor
(C)Cochlear
(D)Facial
Q.66.The treatment therapy used for Tuberculosis:
(A)MDT
(B)DOTs
(C)PPI
(D)Phototherapy
Q.67.What resting position should a nurse encourage
for a client with Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) ?
(A)Sims
(B)Supine with knees flexed
(C)Fowler
(D)Lithotomy with head elevated
Q.68.What should nurse conclude that a client is doing
when making up stories to fill in blank spaces of memory ?
(A)Lying
(B)Denying
(C)Rationalizing
(D)Confabulating
Q.69.Normal head circumference of a New Born:
(A)33–35 cm
(B)50 cm
(C)40–50 cm
(D)20–25 cm
Q.70.Which regulatory body is associated with
registration of nurses in the state ?
(A)INC
(B)SNC
(C)IMA
(D)SMC
Q.71.Antiseptic methods were first introduced by
(A)Lord Lister
(B)Iwoanowski
(C)Beijerwick
(D)Edward Jenner
Q.72.Principles of IV drugs administration is
(A)Should dilute before administration
(B)No need for dilution
(C)Do not have flush volume
(D)Should not administer IV for children
Q.73.Which assessment finding is associated with
diabetic ketoacidosis ?
(A)Sweating and Tremors
(B)Hunger and Hypertension
(C)Cold, clammy skin and irritability
(D)Fruity breath odour and decreasing level of
Q.74.Which method is used to open the airway in a road
traffic accident victim ?
(A)Flexed position
(B)Head tilt–chin lift
(C)Jaw thrust maneuver
(D)Modified head tilt–chin lift
Q.75.Administration of measles vaccine to child is a
measure of
(A)Treatment
(B)Health promotion
(C)Specific protection
(D)Rehabilitation
Q.76.Just before beginning blood transfusion, the
nurse assesses which priority item ?
(A)Vital Signs
(B)Skin Colour
(C)Urine output
(D)Latest Hematocrit level
Q.77.To diagnose dysthymia, the mood disturbance
should last for at least
(A)6 months
(B)1 year
(C)1½ years
(D)2 years
Q.78.An intravenous (IV) site is cool, pale &
swollen & the solution is not infusing. Which complication has occurred ?
(A)Infection
(B)Phlebitis
(C)Infiltration
(D)Thrombosis
Q.79.Tools of measurement in epidemiology are
(A)Rates
(B)Proportions
(C)Ratio
(D)All of these
Q.80.Which size of needle is used to give IM
(intramuscular) injection?
(A)18–20 gauge
(B)22–23 gauge
(C)25–27 gauge
(D)5–7 gauge
Q.81.The length of the uterine tube is approximately
(A)5 cm
(B)15 cm
(C)10 cm
(D)20 cm
Q.82.A patient requires rapid transfusion of several
units of blood. Which device is used to prevent cardiac dysrhythmias?
(A)Pulse Oximetry
(B)Cardiac monitor
(C)Infusion controller
(D)Blood–warming device
Q.83.EBF is
(A)Effective Breast Feeding
(B)Efficient Breast Feeding
(C)Exclusive Breast Feeding
(D)Exclusive Bottle Feeding
Q.84.To administer IV fluids, to the children, the
nurse should know
(A)To calculate the fluid requirement
(B)To do the physical examination
(C)To take history
(D)To calculate the oxygen level
Q.85.Features of good unit planning are
(A)It should be comprehensive.
(B)Its aim should be clear & well.
(C)It provides place for beginning and ending.
(D)All of these
Q.86.Causative organism of diarrhoea in AIDS patient
is
(A)Rota virus
(B)E. coli
(C)Cryptosporidium
(D)Streptococcus aureus
Q.87.Which one of the following conveys the acceptance
of the patient exactly as she/he is?
(A)Reducing physical force
(B)Realistic relationship
(C)Use self understanding
(D)Talk with purpose
Q.88.Examples of House fly borne diseases are, except
(A)Diarrhoea
(B)Cholera
(C)Gastroenteritis
(D)Trench fever
Q.89.Main principle in neonatal resuscitation
(A)Only Airway
(B)Only Breathing
(C)Airway Breathing and Pulse
(D)Only Pulse
Q.90.Tuberculosis is a/an
(A)Water borne disease
(B)Air borne disease
(C)Food borne disease
(D)Arthropod borne disease
Q.91.A plan showing the placement of students in
theory and practical area is called
(A)Master rotation plan
(B)Curriculum
(C)Clinical rotation plan
(D)Lesson plan
Q.92.Which of the following is an example of
neurotransmitter?
(A)Acetylcholine
(B)Cholycystokinin
(C)Cholinestrase
(D)Teretarase
Q.93.Which of the following may increase in
pregnancies complicated by anemia in the second trimester?
(A)Urinary tract infection
(B)Preterm birth
(C)Gestational diabetes
(D)Pregnancy – Induced hypertension
Q.94.Referring the patients main thought as he
expressed:
(A)Reflection
(B)Restating
(C)Informing
(D)Suggesting
Q.95.Which model states that most frequently occurring
behaviour as normal?
(A)Ideal mental health
(B)Biochemical
(C)Statistical
(D)Social
Q.96.Safe Disposal methods of Bio–medical waste
exclude
(A)Collection and segregation
(B)Transportation and storage
(C)Classification and treatment
(D)Disposal techniques
Q.97.What is the principal erogenous organ in women?
(A)Vagina
(B)Labia majora
(C)Clitoris
(D)Labia minora
Q.98.Weaning should start from the month of
(A)7 th month
(B)6 th month
(C)8 th month
(D)12 th month
Q.99.BFHI means
(A)Breast Feeding Home Initiative
(B)Breast Feeding Hospital Initiative
(C)Baby Friendly Hospital Initiative
(D)Baby Friendly Home Initiative
Q.100.Formula to calculate the degree of Nutrition for
4 year baby:
(A)As per BMI
(B)Age in years × 3 + 4
(C)Age in years × 2 + 5
(D)Age in years × 2 + 8
Answers
1.D
2.A 3.B 4.C 5.B
6.C 7.A 8.C 9.B 10.C
11.A 12.C 13.A 14.D 15.B
16.B 17.D 18.D 19.D 20.B
21.A 22.B 23.C 24.B 25.A
26.A 27.C 28.C 29.C 30.B
31.B 32.A 33.A 34.B 35.C
36.A 37.B 38.B 39.D 40.D
41.B 42.A 43.B 44.C 45.A
46.C 47.C 48.D 49.C 50.C
51.A 52.A 53.B 54.D 55.B
56.A 57.D 58.D 59.D 60.D
61.B 62.C 63.D 64.A 65.A
66.B 67.C 68.D 69.A 70.B
71.A 72.A 73.D 74.C 75.C
76.A 77.D 78.C 79.D 80.B
81.C 82.D 83.C 84.A 85.D
86.C 87.D 88.D 89.C 90.B
91.C 92.A 93.B 94.B 95.C
96.C 97.C 98.B 99.C 100.D
Click below to download this question paper
Visit our sites for more updates
www.thebossacadmy.net for study materials, model previous year question papers, books
& journals
0 Comments