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Nursing model paper series 2 – paper 16

Nursing model paper series 2 – paper 16

 Answers & PDF link is there at the end of this paper


Q.1.Which of the following IV fluids is prescribed to increase intravascular volume, replace immediate blood loss volume and increase blood pressure?

    (A)5% dextrose in lactated Ringers Solution

    (B)0.33% sodium chloride (1/3 normal saline)

    (C)0.225% sodium chloride (1/4 normal saline)

    (D)0.45% sodium chloride (1/2 normal saline)

 

 

Q.2.Umbilical cord consists of

    (A)3 veins and 2 arteries

    (B)2 arteries and 1 vein

    (C)2 veins and 2 arteries

    (D)3 arteries and 2 veins

 

 

Q.3.Phases of counselling does not include

    (A)Assessment

    (B)Diagnosis

    (C)Imagination

    (D)Setting goals



Q.4.When performing chest compressions on an adult in CPR, the sternum should be depressed for at least

    (A)¾ to 1 inch

     (B)½ to ¼ inch

    (C)1½ to 2 inches

    (D)2½ to 3 inches

 

 

Q.5.Peg cells are seen in

    (A)Vagina

    (B)Vulva

    (C)Ovary

    (D)Fallopian tubes

 

 

 

Q.6.Fear of crowded or closed in spaces

    (A)Agora phobia

    (B)Social phobia

    (C)Hydro phobia

    (D)Zoo phobia

 

 

Q.7.Soiled waste can be disposed by which method ?

    (A)Incineration

    (B)Disinfection

    (C)Autoclaving

    (D)Chemical treatment

 

 

 

Q.8.What is the normal score in Mini Mental status examination?

    (A)25–30

     (B)20–25

    (C)15–20

    (D)10–15

 

 

Q.9.The reason for urbanization is

    (A)Movement of population

    (B)Growth of Agriculture

    (C)Increased means of communication

    (D)Industrialization

 

 

Q.10.Which is the most appropriate time of IUD insertion ?

    (A)During or within 10 days of menstruation

    (B)About the midst of the cycle

    (C)Just before menstruation

    (D)At any time of menstruation

 

 

Q.11.Fatty acids can be transported into and out of cell membrane by

    (A)Active transport

    (B)Facilitated transport

    (C)Diffusion

    (D)Osmosis

 

 

 

Q.12.Which of the following might help the pregnant client to overcome first–trimester morning sickness?

     (A)Eat dry crackers before arising

     (B)Increase fat intake before bedtime

     (C)Drink high–carbohydrate fluids with meals

    (D)Have two small meals a day with a snacks at noon

 

Q.13.The position of the uterus is

    (A)Retroverted & retroflexed

    (B)Anteverted & anteflexed

    (C)Anteverted & retroflexed

    (D)Retroverted & anteflexed

 

 

 

Q.14.Rational behind play therapy is

     (A)Sensorimotor & Intellectual development

    (B)Sensorimotor development

    (C)Intellectual development

    (D)Social development

 

 

 

Q.15.The amount of sperm present in seminal fluid is

    (A)100 million/ml

    (B)60 million/ml

    (C)1 million/ml

    (D)20 million/ml

 

 

Q.16.Asymmetrical enlargement of the uterus when there is lateral implantation, is called as

    (A)Fernwald's sign

    (B)Piskacek's sign

    (C)Heger's sign

    (D)Goodell's sign

 

 

 

Q.17.Which committee is also known as Health Survey and Development Committee?

    (A)Bhore committee

    (B)Mudaliar committee

    (C)Shrivastav committee

    (D)Mukharji committee

 

 

 

Q.18.What do you mean by incidence ?

    (A)New cases of any disease

    (B)Old cases of any disease

    (C)Total cases of any disease

    (D)All of these



Q.19.IMNCI means

    (A)International Maternal Neonatal Child Immunization

    (B)Intramuscular–Neonatal Care Initiative

    (C)Intramuscular–Neonatal Childhood Illness

    (D)Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness

 

 

 

Q.20.Yellow colour is the coding for

    (A)Human Anatomical waste

    (B)Animal waste

    (C)Biotechnological waste

    (D)Human Anatomical waste, Animal waste, Biotechnological waste & Soiled waste

 

 

Q.21.ORS means

    (A)Oral Rehydration Solution

    (B)Oral Rehydration therapy

    (C)Overall Rehydration Solution

    (D)Oral Rehydration Syringe

 

Q.22.The stage of disease cycle in which signs and symptoms are noticed:

     (A)Incubation period

     (B)Fastigium

     (C)Defervescence

     (D)Defection

 

 

Q.23.Indian Lunacy Act was enacted in the year

    (A)1912

    (B)1985

    (C)1987

   (D)1992

 

 

 

Q.24.A study that examines data collected in the present:

    (A)Non–experimental research

    (B)Pre–experimental research

     (C)Descriptive research

     (D)Basic research

 

 

Q.25.A nurse is planning care for a postpartum client who had a vaginal delivery 2 hours ago. The client had a midline episiotomy and has several hemorrhoids. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client ?

    (A)Acute pain

    (B)Disturbed body image

    (C)Impaired urinary elimination

    (D)Risk for imbalanced fluid volume

 

 

Q.26.According to Maslow, which is the highest level of need of an individual ?

    (A)Basic physiological

    (B)Self esteem

    (C)Self actualization

    (D)Safety & security

 

 

Q.27.Which bacilli is responsible for the acidic medium in vaginal secretion?

    ( A)Doderlein's bacilli

    (B)Staphylococci

    (C)Proteus

    (D)E. coli



Q.28.Which of the following food item is rich in Vitamin C?

     (A)Milk

    (B)Oranges

    (C)Bananas

    (D)Chicken

 

 

Q.29.Community Health Centre covers the population of

    (A)5,000–6,000

    (B)15,000–18,000

    (C)1,00,000–1,20,000

    (D)50,000–60,000

 

 

 

Q.30.Kellys suture is done in

    (A)Cervical incontinence

    (B)Stress incontinence

    (C)Genito–urinary prolapse

    (D)Vaginoplasty

 

 

 

Q.31.The IQ level of Moderate Mental Retardation:

    (A)50–70

    (B)35–50

    (C)20–35

    (D)below 20

 

 

Q.32.Which of the following coagulation factor is not increased during pregnancy?

    (A)Factor VII

    (B)Factor VIII

    (C)Factor IX

    (D)Factor XI

 

 

 

Q.33.In a patient receiving Total Parentral Nutrition (TPN), which of the signs indicate hyperglycemia ?

     (A)Fever, weak pulse & thirst

    (B)Nausea, vomiting & oliguria

   (C)Sweating, chills and abdominal pain

   (D)Weakness, thirst and increased urine output

 

Q.34.Causative Organism of AIDS is

     (A)Paramyxovirus

     (B)Orthomyxovirus

    (C)Retrovirus

    (D)Rhabdovirus

 

 

 

Q.35.Validity of tool means

    (A)It measures consistency.

    (B)It is free from bias.

    (C)It measures what it is supposed to measure.

    (D)It detects changes & differences.

 

 

Q.36.Which is an example of Atypical Antipsychotics ?

    (A)Chlorpromazine

    (B)Haloperidol

    (C)Resperidone

    (D)Lithium

 

 

 

Q.37.The main clinical symptoms of Hiatal hernia is

    (A)Heartburn

    (B)Vomiting

    (C)Pain in inguinal area

    (D)Burning micturation

 

 

 

Q.38.Causes of High infant mortality rate is

    (A)Six killer diseases

    (B)Low birth weight

    (C)Diarrhoeal disease

     (D)All of these

 

 

Q.39.Most important uterine prolapse is

     (A)Round ligament

    (B)Broad ligament

    (C)Cardinal ligament

   (D)Uterosacral ligament

 

 

 

Q.40.Which is a deviant behaviour in marriage ?

    (A)Marriage between the forbidden degrees of relation

    (B)Not observing caste rules in marriage

    (C)Widow remarriage

    (D)All of these

 

 

 

Q.41.A home care nurse visits a pregnant client who has a diagnosis of mild pre–eclampsia. Which assessment finding indicates a worsening of the pre–eclampsia and the need to notify the physan ?

    (A)Urinary output has increased.

    (B)Dependent edema has resolved.

    (C)Blood pressure reading is at the prenatal baseline.

    (D)The client complains of a headache and blurred vision.

 

 

 

.Q42.Projective technique is

    (A)A method of conducting a study

    (B)Indirect measure of data that is unlikely to be obtained

    (C)A method of research plan

    (D)A method of qualitative research



Q.43.In India 70% of malaria cases occur due to

    (A)Plasmodium vivex

    (B)Plasmodium falciparum

    (C)Plasmodium malariae

    (D)Plasmodium ovale

 

 

Q.44.Drug of choice for the prevention of Mother to Child HIV infection:

    (A)Tomoxifen citrate

    (B)Navilopine

    (C)Indinavir

    (D)Amikacin

 

 

 

Q.45.Excessive urination at night is termed as

    (A)Micturation

    (B)Nocturia

    (C)Dysuria

    (D)Pyuria

 

 

Q.46.Islets of Langerhans produce

    (A)Bile

    (B)Trypsin

    (C)Insulin

    (D)Renin

 

 

Q.47.Planned Educational activities provided in a job setting is called

    (A)Continuing education

    (B)Job description

    (C)Job analysis

    (D)In–service education

 

 

Q.48.Which is not a direct mode of transmission of communicable diseases ?

    (A)Droplet infection

    (B)Transplacental

    (C)Inoculation into skin

    (D)Vector borne transmission

 

 

Q.49.Standard deviation summarizes the average

amount of deviation of values

    (A)From the mean

    (B)From the mode

    (C)From the median

    (D)From the Correlation

 

 

Q.50._______ is characterized by episode of rapid ingestion of large volume of food followed by induced vomiting.

    (A)Bulimia Nervosa

    (B)Anorexia Nervosa

    (C)Binge eating

    (D)Obesity

 

 

 

Q.51. Which of the following vein is not a branch of portal vein ?

    A. Spleenicvein

    B. Superior mesiantric

    C. Gastric vein

    D. Hepatic vein



Q.52. Which layer is responsible for vaso contraction and dilation

 of artery ?

    A. Tunica intima

    B. Tunica media

    C. Tunica externa (tunica adventia )

    D. All of above ..

 

 

Q.53. A Normal female who's father is is hemophiliac, marry a Normal male,the probability of male child to becoming hemophiliac?

    A. 0%

    B. 25%

    C. 50%

    D. 75%

 

 

Q.54. Which type of hemophilia is most common ?

    A. Classical hemophilia ( hemophilia A)√

    B. Hemophilia B

    C. Both A and B common

    D none of them

 

Q.55. Chelation therapy used in a patient with Thallessamia patient,

the nurse knows that this therapy is used ??

    A. To Treat anemia

    B. To treat hemolysis

    C. To treat jaundice

    D. To treat iron over load

 

 

Q.56.Cooley's Anemia is also known as ?

    A. Alfa thallessemia

    B. Beta thallessemia

    C. Sickle cell Anemia

    D. Hemophilia

 

 

 

Q.57. If patents blood group is Rh+ then possibility of Rh- blood group in children?

    A. 25%

    B. 0%

    C. 50%

    D. 75%



Q.58. Which Anticoagulant is A Natural anticoagulant?

    A. Heparin

    B. Warfarin

    C. EDTA

    D. Citrate

 

 

Q.59.  MCV (means corpuscular volume indicates ;

    A. Amount of RBC

    B. SiZe of RBC

    C. Amount of HB

    D. Number of WBC

 

 

Q.60.. Morphology of RBC in Megaloblastic anemia ?

    A. Macrocytic& hypochromic

    B. Macrocytic& normochromic

    C. Microcytic & hypochromic

    D. Normocytic & Normochromic

 

 

 

 

Q. 61. Largest blood cell?

    A. RBC

    B. Monocyte

    C. Platelets

    D. Basophill

 

   

 

Q. 62. Which of the following is characteristics feature of ALL leukocyte(WBC)?

    A. They have lobed nucleus

    B. They have Nucleated

    C. They are phagocytic in nature

    D. They have cytoplasmic granules

 

 

Q. 63. Widest skeleton muscle ?

    A. Gluteus muscle

    B. Stapedius muscle

    C. Sartorius muscle

    D. Latissmus dorsi

 

 

Q.64.Strongest skeleton muscle ?

    A. Gluteus muscle

    B. Stapedius muscle

    C. Sartorius muscle

    D. Masseter

 

 

Q.65. Longest skeleton muscle ?

    A. Gluteus muscle

    B. Stapedius muscle

    C. Sartorius muscle

    D. Masseter ...

 

 

 

 

Q66.  Largest skeleton muscle ?

    A. Gluteus muscle

    B. Stapedius muscle

    C. Sartorius muscle

    D. Masseter

 

 

Q.67. . Smallest skeleton muscle ?

    A. Gluteus muscle

    B. Stapedius muscle

    C. Sartorius muscle

    D. Masseter

 

 

 

Q. 68. Which of the following is a example of false connective tissue ?

    A. Bone

    B. Blood

    C. Cartilage

    D. None of them

 

 

 

Q. 69. Maximum transverse diameter of fetal skull  is ?

    A. Biparital diameter

    B. Bitemporal diameter

    C. Bi mastoid diameter

    D. None of them .

 

Q.70 . Maximum anterio-posterior diameter of fetal head is??

   A. Subocciputo-bregmetic

   B. Subocciputo-frontalis

   C. Mento-vertical

   D. Submento-bregmetic

 

 

 

Q.71. Detrusor Muscles are find in ?

    A. Ureter

    B. Urethra

    C. Urinary bladder

    D. Uterus

 

 

 

Q.72. Normal adult urine Output per day?

    A. 1000ml

    B. 1500ml

    C. 2000ml

    D. 2500ml

 

 

Q.73. KUB Radiography is a X-Ray of?

    A. Kidneys,ureters and bladder.

    B. Kidneys,urrthra and bladder.

    C. Kidneys,ureter and bones.

    D. Kidneys,uterus and bladder.

 

 

 

Q. 74. VANILLYLMANDELIC Acid (VMA) test is performed to diagnose ?

    A. Pheochromocytoma

    B. Kidney tumor

    C. Bladder cancer

    D. CRF

 

 

Q.75.commest cause of abruptio Placentae ?

   A. Hypertensive disorder in pregnancy

   B. Trauma

   C. Short umbilical cord

   D. Premature rupture of membranE

 

 

Q.76 Which type of placenta previa is known as dangerous placenta previa ?

   A. Type 1st

   B. Type 2nd posterior

   C. Type 3rd

   D. Type 4th

 

 

 

Q. 77.When the placenta is implanted in lower uterine segment but does not reaches to the internal OS; it is ??

    A. Low laying placenta previa

    B. Marginal placenta previa

    C. Partial placenta previa

    D. Complete placenta previa

 

 

           

Q 78. Which of the following is not A absolute indication of Cesarean Section (C.S.)

   A. Central placenta previa

   B. Contracted pelvis

   C. Vaginal stenosis

   D. Previous C.S



Q.79. Which stage of labour is Known as " GOLDEN PERIOD OF LABOUR" ?

   A. First stage

   B. Second stage

   C. 3rd stage

   D. 4th stage

 

 

    

Q.80 Tongue bite is common in which phase of seizure ?

   A. Pre monitory phase

   B. Tonic phase

   C. Clonic phase

   D. Stage of coma 

 

 

 

Q. 81.Most important parameter of modified bishops scoring system ?

   A. Head station

   B. Cervical dilatation

   C. Consistency

   D. Position



Q. 82. Fertilization of two different ova released in different menstrual cycle,is known as ?

   A. Super feuandation

   B. Super fetation

   C. Fetus acardius

   D. Fetus vanishing

 

 

Q.83. 4P" related to labour are given below ; which word denotes the uterine contraction ?

   A. Power

   B. Passage

   C. Passenger

   D. Psyche    

 

Q.84. A pregnant lady comes in antenatal unit first time and reports thats she have vaginal discharges,abdominal distension and expulsion of vesicles (grapes like). Doctor suggest USG, on USG there is snow stome appearance (or honeycomb appearance ). According to USG report most likely diagnosis is?

   A. Choriocarcinoma

   B. Invasive mole

   C. Placental side tumor

   D. Hydatidiform   mole  

Q.85. When 5 fetus develops in uterus it is known as ?

   A. Quadruplets pregnancy

   B. Quintuplets pregnancy

   C. Sextupletes pregnancy

   D. Pantuplets pregnancy

 

 

Q. 86. Most common form of tubal pregnancy in ectopic pregnancy ?

   A. Interstitial

   B. Isthmus

   C. Ampula

   D. Infundibular     

 

 

 

Q. 87. Most common type of ectopic pregnancy ?

   A. Ovarian pregnancy

   B. Tubal pregnancy

   C. Abdominal pregnancy

   D. Cervical pregnancy

 

 

Q. 88. Under MTP Act- 1971,consent needed of  ?

   A. Husband

   B. Wife/women

   C. Legal guardian

   D. Parents

 

 

Q. 89. Which of the following is a humanitarian indication of MTP  ?

   A. Rape in minor girls ,major girls and Lunatic mother

   B. Contraception failure in married couple

   C. Fetus with structural,chromosomal and functuonal disorder

   D. Conditions which make life of mother in danger    

 

 

 

 

Q. 90. MTP act passed by parliament in which year?

   A. 1975

   B. 1971

   C. 1972

   D. 1977



Q.91. Metroplasty (for adhesion removal) is done in which type of abortion ?

   A. Missed abortion

   B. Complete abortion

   C. Recurrent abortion

   D. Threatened abortion

 

 

 

Q.92. Most common cause of habitual abortion in 2nd trimester ?

   A. Incompetent  internal OS

   B. Genetic abnormalities

   C. Trauma to uterus

   D. Drugs

 

 

 

Q. 93. When the fundus and cervix comes down but remain in vagina which type of inversion of uterus ;

   A. First degree

   B. Second degree

   C. Third degree

   D. Forth degree



Q. 94. Rule 30" is used in ?

   A. APH

   B. PPH

   C. Retention of placenta

   D. Shock

 

 

Q.95. Most common cause of PPH ?

   A. Trauma

   B. Atonic uterus

   C. Blood coagulation disorder

   D. APH         

 

 

 

Q. 96. Ovulations accurs in lactating woman after delivery as soon as;

   A. 4 weeks

   B. 10 weeks

   C. 3 weeks

   D. 6 weeks

 

 

Q.97.Which statement is correct about Excessive lochia ?

   A. Menstrual pad become wet below 2.5 cm in one hour

   B. Menstrual pad become wet 15 cm in an hour

   C. Menstrual pad become saturated in one hour

   D. Menstrual pad become saturated in 15 min.

 

 

Q.98. All the organ show Involution during normal puerperium  EXCEPT:

   A. Uterus

   B. Vagina

   C. Mammary glands

   D. All of the above

 

 

 

Q.99. Episitomy should be done in which stage of labour?

   A. First stage

   B. Second stage

   C. Third stage

   D. Forth stage

 

 

 

Q.100. According to the shape of Inlet,which type of female pelvis is common ?

   A. Android

   B. Anthropoid

   C. Gynecoid

   D. Platypelloid

 

 

Answers

 

1.A          2.B          3.C          4.C          5.D

 

6.A          7.A          8.A          9.D          10.A

 

11.B        12.A        13.B        14.A        15.A

 

16.B        17.A        18.A        19.D        20.D

 

21.A        22.B        23.A        24.C        25.A

 

26.C        27.A        28.B        29.C        30.A

 

31.B        32.D        33.D        34.C        35.C

 

36.C        37.B        38.D        39.C        40.A

 

41.D        42.B        43.A        44.B        45.B

 

46.C        47.D        48.D        49.A        50.A

 

51.D        52.B        53.C        54.A        55.D

 

56.B        57.A        58.A        59.B        60.A

 

61.B        62.B        63.D        64.D        65.C

 

66.A        67.B        68.B        69.A        70.C

 

71.C        72.B        73.A        74.A        75.A

 

76.B        77.A        78.D        79.D        80.C

 

81.B        82.B        83.A        84.D        85.B

 

86.C        87.B        88.B        89.A        90.B

 

91.C        92.A        93.B        94.B        95.B

 

96.B        97.D        98.C        99.B        100.C

 

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