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Nursing model paper series 2 – paper 8

Nursing model paper series 2 – paper 8


 Answers & PDF link is there at the end of this paper

Q.01 In a certain code GONE is written as ‘5139’ and NODAL is written as ‘31268’.

How is LODGE written in that code language?

A. 81259

B. 84259

C. 82459

D. 82659

 

 

Q.02 A client with hyperthyroidism is taking lithium carbonate to inhibit thyroid hormone release With complaint by the client should alert the nurse to a problem with the client’s medication?

A. The client complains of blurred vision

B. The client complains of increased thirst and increased urination

C. The client complains of increased weight gain over the past year

D. The client complains of ringing in the ears

 

 

 

Q.03 Out of the given four words only one is not spelt correctly. Find the word that is not correctly spelt.

A. apparently

B. noticeable

C. necessary

D. occurrence

 

 

Q.04 A client is scheduled for an arteriogram using a radiopaque dye. The nurse assesses which most critical item before the procedure?

A. Vital signs

B. Intake and output

C. Height and weight

D. Allergy to iodine or shellfish

 

 

Q.05 DIRECTIONS: A sentence with an underlined word is given below. Find the Word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.New technology means that astronomers can accomplish in a single night what once took years.

A. achieve

B. separate

C. eliminate

D. abandon

 

 

Q.06 FHS can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following?

A. 5 weeks gestation

B. 10 weeks gestation

C. 15 weeks gestation

D. 20 weeks gestation

 

 

 

Q.07 The nurse is caring for a client with an intracranial aneurysm. The nurse interprets that which of the following is related to the dysfunction of cranial nerve III?

A. Mild drowsiness

B. Ptosis of the left eyelid

C. Slight slurring of speech

D. Less frequent spontaneous speech

 

 

 

 

Q.08 A home care nurse assesses an older client’s functional status and ability to perform activities of daily living. The nurse focuses the assessment on:

A. Everyday routines

B. Self-care activities

C. Household management

D. Endurance and flexibility

 

 

Q.09 Which of the following post-operative diets is most appropriate for the client who has had a haemorrhoidectomy?

A. High-fibre

B. Low-residue

C. Bland

D. Clear-liquid

 

 

Q.10 Out of the given options, choose the most appropriate one to fill in the blank. She has fought a constant battle ………. depression throughout her career.

A. with

B. from

C. at

D. into



Q.11 If a:b is 3:4, b:c is 2:5, find a : b : c.

A. 3 : 4 : 10

B. 3 : 5 : 7

C. 3 : 4 : 8

D. 3 : 2 : 9

 

 

Q.12 The nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client with elevated cholesterol levels. Which cooking oil is not suggested for the client on a low-cholesterol diet?

A. Safflower oil

B. Sunflower oil

C. Coconut oil

D. Canola oil

 

 

 

Q.13 A 6-month-old is hospitalized with symptoms of botulism. What aspect of the infant’s history is associated with CLOSTRIDIUM BOTULISM infection?

A. The infant sucks on his fingers and toes

B. The mother sweetens the infant’s cereal with honey

C. The infant was switched to soy-based formula

D. The father recently purchased an aquarium



Q.14 Which of the following is not included in the definition of personality psychology:

A. It deals with adaptations to the environment

B. It deals with how traits influence the environment

C. It deals with how the environment influences traits

D. All of the above are included

 

 

Q.15 The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving parenteral nutrition through a central venous catheter. Which action should the nurse plan to implement to decrease the risk of infection in this client?

A. Track the client’s oral temperature

B. Administer antibiotics intravenously

C. Evaluate the differential of the leukocytes

D. Use sterile technique for dressing changes

 

 

 

Q.16 Total Area of Maharashtra State:

A. 307,713 km 2

B. 607,713 km 2

C. 189,718 km 2

D. 217,718 km 2




Q.17 During the first 4 hours after a male circumcision, assessing for which of the following is the priority?

A. Infection

B. Hemorrhage

C. Discomfort

D. Dehydration

 

 

Q.18 A client receiving parnate (tranylcypromine) is admitted in hypertensive crisis. Which food is capable of producing a hypertensive crisis when taken with the medication?

A. Processed cheese

B. Cottage cheese

C. Cream cheese

D. Cheddar cheese

 

 

Q.19 The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of hepatitis. Who is experiencing pruritis. Which would be the most appropriate nursing intervention?

A. Suggest that the client take warm showers two times per day

B. Add baby oil to the client’s bath water

C. Apply powder to the client’s skin

D. Suggest a hot-water rinse after bathing

 

 

Q.20 A client with pancreatitis has been transferred to the intensive care unit. Which order would the nurse anticipate?

A. Blood pressure every 15 minutes

B. Insertion of a Levine tube

C. Cardiac monitoring

D. Dressing changes two times per day

 

 

 

Q.21 A client is being discharged to home while recovering from acute renal failure. The client indicates an understanding of the therapeutic dietary regimen if the client states the need to eat foods that are lower in:

A. Fats

B. Vitamins

C. Potassium

D. Carbohydrates

 

 

Q.22 What will come in place of Question mark (?) in the following number series?

3, 4.5, 9, 22.5, 67.5, (?), 945

A. 265.25

B. 236.25

C. 225.36

D. 150

 

 

 

Q.23 An adult is pacing about the unit and wringing his hands. He is breathing rapidly and complains of palpitations and nausea and he has difficulty focusing on what the nurse is saying. He says he is having a heart attack but refuses to rest. The nurse would interpret his level of anxiety as:

A. Mild

B. Moderate

C. Severe

D. Panic

 

 

 

Q.24 A mother and her 3-week-old infant arrive at the well-baby clinic for a rescreening test for phenylketonuria(PKU). The nurse reviews the results of the serum phenylalanine levels a notes that the level is 1.0 mg/dl. The nurse interprets this level as:

A. Normal

B. Inconclusive

C. Requiring a repeat study

D. Elevated and indicating PKU

 

 

 

Q.25 Labour is called normal if it fulfills the following criteria except -

A. Spontaneous in onset and at term

B. With vertex presentation

C. Modifying the nature of termination

D. Without undue prolongation

 

 

 

Q.26 Pale white vaginal discharge for the first fortnight during puerperium is:

A. Lochia rubra

B. Lochia serosa

C. Lochia alba

D. Lochia tuna

 


Q.27 DIRECTIONS: A sentence with an underlined word is given below. Find the word which is opposite to the highlighted word from the given options. The city was annihilated by an atomic bomb.

A. Created

B. Ruined

C. Demolished

D. Destructed

 

 

 

Q.28 The nurse is teaching the client regarding use of sodium warfarin. Which statement made by the client would require further teaching?

A. “I will have blood drawn every month”

B. “I will assess my skin for a rash”

C. “I take aspirin for a headache”

D. “I will use an electric razor for shave”

 

 

 

Q.29 Which activity is best suited to the 12 –year-old with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?

A. Playing video games

B. Swimming

C. Working crossword puzzles

D. Playing slow-pitch softball

 

 

 

Q.30 Planning is a category of nursing behaviors in which:

A. The nurse determines the health care needed for the Patient

B. The Physician determines the plan of care for the Patient

C. Patient -centered goals and expected outcomes are established

D. The Patient determines the care needed

 

 

 

Q.31 The home health nurse is visiting a 15–year old with sickle cell disease. Which information obtained on the visit would cause the most concern? The client:

A. Likes to play baseball

B. Drinks several carbonated drinks per day

C. Has two sisters with sickle cell tract

D. Is taking Tylenol to control pain

 

 

Q.32 The nurse prepares to administer an enteral feeding to a client through a nasogastric tube. Which is the priority intervention for the nurse to complete before administering the feeding?

A. Determining tube placement

B. Auscultating the tube bowel sounds

C. Measuring the intake and output

D. Establishing the client’s baseline weight

 

 

 

Q.33 The client delivered a 9- pound infant two days ago. An effective means of managing discomfort from an episiotomy is:

A. Medicated suppository

B. Aspirin

C. Sitz baths

D. Ice packs

 

 

 

Q.34 The client is having electroconvulsive therapy for treatment of severe

depression. Which of the following indicates that the client’s ECT has been effective?

A. The client loses consciousness

B. The client vomits

C. The client’s ECG indicates tachycardia

D. The client has grand mal seizure

 

 

 

Q.35 A man is admitted to the intensive care unit with chest pain, an abnormal ECG, and elevated enzymes. When the significance of this is explained to him, he says, “I can’t be having a heart attack. No way. You must be mistaken.” The nurse suspect the client is using which defense mechanism?

A. Sublimation

B. Regression

C. Dissociation

D. Denial

 

 

Q.36 The nurse is obtaining a history from a client who was admitted to the hospital with a thrombotic brain attack. The nurse assesses the client, knowing that before the stroke occurred, the client most likely experienced:

A. No symptoms at all

B. Throbbing headaches

C. Transient hemiplegia and loss of speech

D. Unexplained episodes of loss of consciousness

 

 

 

Q.37 Which of the following statements about AIDS is true?

A. The disease is highly infectious

B. The fatality rate is low if the disease is detected in its early stages

C. Most people who get AIDS die of pneumonia

D. None of the above

 

 

 

Q.38 The home health nurse is visiting a client with Paget’s disease. An important part Of preventive care for the client with Paget’s disease is:

A. Keeping the environment free of clutter

B. Advising the client to see the dentist regularly

C. Encouraging the client to take influenza vaccine

D. Telling the client to take a daily multivitamin

 

 

 

Q.39 For blood clotting fibrinogen is changed into fibrin with the help of –

A. Antithrombin

B. Thrombin

C. Platelets

D. Vitamin K

 

 

Q.40 The client is admitted with left-sided congestive heart failure. In assessing the client for edema, the nurse should check the:

A. Feet

B. Neck

C. Hands

D. Sacrum

 

 

Q.41 A client is hospitalized with signs of transplant rejection following a recent transplant. Assessment of the client would be expected to reveal:

A. A weight loss of 2 pounds in 1 day

B. A serum creatinine 1.25 mg/dl

C. Urinary output of 50ml /hr

D. Rising blood pressure



Q.42 A nurse is caring for an infant with laryngomalacia. Which position would the nurse place the infant in to decrease the incidence of stridor?

A. Prone

B. Supine

C. Supine with the neck flexed

D. Prone with the neck hyperextended

 

 

 

Q.43 A 5- year –old is a family contact to the client with tuberculosis. Isoniazid (INH) has been prescribed for the client. The nurse is aware that the length of time that the medication will be taken is:

A. 1 year

B. 3 months

C. 6 months

D. 2 years

 

 

Q.44 Which of the following is/are part of the definition of learning?

A. Change in behavior

B. Relatively permanent

C. Brought about by experience

D. All of the above

 

 

Q.45 A client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver is not tolerating protein well, as evidenced by abnormal laboratory values. The nurse anticipates that which of the following medications will be prescribed for the client?

A. Folic acid

B. Lactulose

C. Thiamine

D. Ethacrynic acid

 

 

Q.46 The client is admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Blood gases reveal Ph 7.36, CO2 45, O2 84, bicarb 28. The nurse would assess the client to be in:

A. Uncompensated acidosis

B. Compensated alkalosis

C. Compensated respiratory acidosis

D. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis

 

 

 

Q.47 A client has had a laryngectomy for throat cancer and has started oral intake. The nurse determines that the client has tolerated the first stage of dietary advancement if the client takes which of the following types of diet without aspirating or choking?

A. Bland

B. Full liquids

C. Clear liquids

D. Semisolid foods

 

 

Q.48 The immunoglobulin found in a mother's milk is_______

A. IgM

B. IgA

C. IgE

D. IgG

 


Q.49 DIRECTIONS: Select the one which is different from the other three responses.

A. 45

B. 35

C. 85

D. 72



Q.50 A client with hypothyroidism frequently complains of feeling cold. The nurse should tell the client that she will be more comfortable if she:

A. Uses an electric blanket at night

B. Dresses in extra layers of clothing

C. Applies a heating pad to her feet

D. Takes a hot bath morning and evening

 

 

Q. 51 The ischium has curved upper border is known as-

A. Ischial tuberosity

B. symphysis pubis

C. Iliac crest

D. iliac fossa

 

 

Q. 52 Which structure of ischium can be palpated vaginally in which fetus head come & fix?

A. Ischial tuberosity

B. Ischial spine

C. Ischial Ramus

D. Iliac crest.

 

 

Q. 53 The concave anterior surface of ilium bone is known as-

A. Iliac crest

B. Anterior superior spine

C. Iliac fossa

D. Iliac crest

 


Q.54. Non inflammatory conditions of the skin is termed as:

A. Dermatitis

B. Dermatoses

C. Neuro dermatitis

D. Furunculoisis

 


Q. 55 What is the name of socket in which femurs head articulate with hip bone-

A. Acronium

B. Acetabulum

C. Xiphoid

D. Ischial tuberosity

 

 

Q. 56 Which part of iliac bone shows its dominancy when we place our hand on the hip bone.-

A. Iliac crest

B. Iliac spine

C. Iliac fossa

D. Iliac foramen

 

 

Q. 57 A client’s blood gases reflect diabetic acidosis. The nurse should expect -

A. Increased p

B. Decreased PO2

C. Increased PCO2

D. Decreased HCO3

 

 

Q. 58 Insulin causes-----

A. Na+ Entry into cell

B. K+ Entry into cell

C. K+ entry & Exit into cell

D. K+ Exit from cell


 

 

Q. 59 3 D’s (Diarrhoea, dementia, dermatitis) are the characteristic of ……deficiency disorder.-

A. Niacin

B. Thiamine

C. Riboflavin

D. Biotin



Q. 60 Which female genital organ situated from vulva to uterus-

A. Cervix

B. Vagina

C. Isthmus

D. Clitoris

 

 

Q. 61 Over secretion of glucagon causes

A. Tetany

B. Diabetes Insipidus

C. Acromegaly

D. Glycosuria

 

 

Q. 62 Synthesis of glucose from non- carbohydrate source is referred as-

A. Glycolysis

B. Gluconeogenesis

C. Glyconeogenesis

D. Glucogenesis

 

 

Q. 63 Hyposecretion of aldosterone causes-

A. Gulls disease

B. Graves’ disease

C. Cushing disease

D. Addison’s disease

 

 

 

Q. 64 Which of the following is first aid hormone

A.Vit. D

B. Catecholamines

C. Kinins

D. Thymopsin

 

 

 

Q. 65 Name the hormone used for induction of labor?

A. Estrogen

B. Cortisol

C. Oxytocin

D. Progesterone

 

 

Q. 66 Enlargement of thyroid gland occurs in:

A. Hypothyroidism

B. Hyperthyroidism

C. Tumors of thyroid

D. All of the above

 

 

 

Q. 67 Hormones are:-

A. Produced in low amount

B. Easily diffusible

C. Non- antigenic

D. All of the above

 

 

 

Q. 68 The vitamin which works along with para thyroid hormone is-

A. Vit. C

B. Calciferol

C. Tocopherol

D. Vit. B 12

 


Q. 69 Philips collip discovered which of the following hormone-

A. Parathyroid hormone

B. Thyroxin

C. ADH

D. Oxytocin

 

 

 

Q. 70 “Secondary messenger” is-

A. ATP

B. DNA

C. Cyclic AMP

D. ADP

 

 

Q. 71 Which structure of blastocyst develop in to fetus-

A. Blastocoele

B. Trophoblast

C. ICM

D. placenta

 

 

Q. 72 First discovered hormone is-

A. Thyroxin

B. Secretin

C. Insulin

D. Adrenaline

 

 

 

Q. 73 Hyper secretion of STH leads to-

A. Dwarf & Acromegaly

B. Goiter & Sterility

C. Cretinism & Myxedema

D. Gigantism & Acromegaly

 

 

 

Q. 74 If amount of ADH decreased in blood, micturition:-

A. Remains unchanged

B. Decreased

C. Increased

D. None

 

 

Q. 75 What is the HCG---?

A. High concentration of globulin

B. Human chorionic gomadotrophin

C. Human central gravitation.

D. Human chorionic gonadotrophin

 

 

 

Q. 76 In hashimoto's disease symptoms develop like-

A. Hposecretion of Adrenaline

B. Hypersecretion of thyroxin

C. Hposecretion of thyroxin

D. Hypersecretion of Adrenaline

 

 

Q. 77 Cushing’s Syndrome is a hormone disorder caused by high levels of what?

A. Y Chromosomes

B. Fiber in the digestive tract

C. Cortisol in the blood

D. Unprotected sexual contact

 

 

Q. 78 The nurse is evaluating nutritional outcomes for an elderly client with anorexia nervosa. Which data best indicates that the plan of care is effective?

A. The client selects a balanced diet from the menu

B. The clients hematocrit improves

C. The clients tissue turgor improves

D. The client gains gait

 

 

Q. 79 A nurse is reviewing the record of a client in the labor room and notes that the nurse midwife has documented that the fetus is at -1 station. The nurse determines that the fetal presenting part is:

A. 1 inch below the coccyx

B. 1 inch below the iliac crest

C. 1 cm above the ischial spine

D. 1 fingerbreadth below the symphysis pubis

 

 

 

Q. 80 An important intervention in monitoring the dietary compliance of a client with bulimia is:

A. Allowing the client privacy during mealtimes

B. Praising her for eating all her meal

C. Observing her for 1-2 hours after meals

D. Encouraging her to choose foods she likes and to eat in moderation

 

 

Q. 81 The nurse is caring for a client following the removal of a central line catheter when the clientsuddenly develops dyspnea and complains of substernal chest pain. The client is noticeably confused and fearful. The nurse should suspect which complication of central line use?

A. Myocardial infraction

B. Air embolus

C. Intrathoracic bleeding

D. Vagal response

 

 

 

Q. 82 DIRECTIONS: Select the related letters from the given alternatives. LOM : NMK :: PKI : ?

A. RIH

B. SHG

C. RIG

D. RHG

 



Q. 83 What is the function of blood platelets?

A. Carry haemoglobin

B. Aid in coagulation of blood

C. Ingest bacteria

D. Transport CO2

 

 

 

Q. 84 A client with a history of diabetes insipidus is admitted with polyuria, polydipsia, and mental confusion. The priority intervention for this client is:

A. Measure the urinary output

B. Check the vital signs

C. Encourage increased fluid intake

D. Weigh the client

 

 

Q. 85 Which of the following meal selections is appropriate for the client with celiac disease?

A. Toast, jam, and apple juice

B. Peanut butter cookies and milk

C. Rice krispies bar and milk

D. Cheese pizza and kool-Aid

 


Q. 86 A pregnant client with diabetes mellitus arrives at the health care clinic for a follow-up visit. What priority assessment should the nurse monitor?

A. Urine for specific gravity

B. For the presence of edema

C. Urine for glucose and ketones

D. Blood pressure, pulse and respirations

 

 

Q. 87 During which of the following stages of labour would the nurse assess ‘crowning’

A. First stage

B. Second stage

C. Third stage

D. Fourth stage

 

 

 

Q. 88 The client is taking rifampin 600 mg PO daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication?

A. Telling the client that the medication will need to be taken with juice

B. Telling the client that the medication will change the colour of the urine

C. Telling the client to take the medication before going to bed at night

D. Telling the client to take medication if the night sweats occur

 

 


Q. 89 A client with hemophilia has nosebleed. Which nursing action is most appropriate to control the bleeding?

A. Place the client in a sitting position with the head hyper extended

B. Pack the nares tightly with gauze to apply pressure to the source of bleeding

C. Pinch the soft lower part of the nose for a minimum 5 minutes

D. Apply ice packs to the forehead and back of the neck

 

 

 

Q. 90 The nurse is planning dietary changes for a client following an episode of pancreatitis. Which diet is suitable for the client?

A. Low calorie, low carbohydrate

B. High calorie, low fat

C. High protein, high fat

D. Low protein, high carbohydrate



Q. 91 A client is at 35 weeks of gestation calls the nurse at the clinic and reports a sudden discharge of fluid from the vagina. Based on the data provided, the suspects which of the following conditions?

A. Miscarriage

B. Preterm labor

C. Intrauterine fetal demise

D. Premature rupture of the membranes

 

 

Q. 92 A client with a c6 spinal cord injury 2 months ago now complains of a pounding headache. The pulse is 64 and the blood pressure is 220/110mmhg. Which of the following action should the nurse take first?

A. Give analgesic as ordered

B. Check for fecal impaction

C. Elevate the client’s head and lower the legs

D. Notify the physician

 

 

Q. 93 A nurse plans to assess a client for the vegetative signs of depression. The nurse assesses for these signs by determining the clients:

A. Level of self-esteem

B. Level of suicidal ideation

C. Ability to think, concentrate and make rational decisions

D. Appetite, weight, sleep patterns and psychomotor activity

 

 

Q. 94 A nurse is caring for an infant who is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of haemolytic disease. The nurse reviews the laboratory results, expecting to note which of the following in this infant?

A. Decreased bilirubin count

B. Elevated blood glucose level

C. Decreased RBC count

D. Decreased white blood cell count

 

 

Q. 95 A client had arterial blood gases drawn. The results are a pH of 7.34, a partial pressure of carbon dioxide of 37 mm Hg, a partial pressure of oxygen of 79 mm Hg and a bicarbonate level of 19 mEq/L. the nurse interprets that the client is experiencing:

A. Metabolic acidosis

B. Metabolic alkalosis

C. Respiratory acidosis

D. Respiratory alkalosis

 

 

Q. 96 At 28-30 weeks gestation where would you expect to find the uterine fundus?

A. Umbilicus

B. Xiphisternum

C. Symphysis pubis

D. Half way between umbilicus and xiphisternum

 

 

Q. 97 The nursing care plan is_______

A. A written guideline for implementation and evaluation

B. A documentation of client care

C. A projection of potential alterations in client behaviors

D. A tool to set goals and project outcomes

 

 

 

Q. 98 In an examination a candidate who got 30% of the total marks failed by 8 marks. Another candidate who got 35% got 12 marks more than the passing marks. Total marks are

A. 500

B. 400

C. 800

D. 300

 


Q. 99 Tunica adventitia is a part of –

A. Blood vessels

B. Testes

C. Scrotum

D. Kidney

 

 

 

Q. 100 A nurse is preparing to administer a chemotherapeutic agent via intraperitoneal therapy. In which position should the nurse plan to place the client before administering this therapy?

A. Supine

B. Semi-fowler’s

C. Trendelenburg’s

D. Dorsal recumbent

 

 

Answers

 

 

1.A          2.B          3.A          4.D          5.A

 

6.D          7.B          8.B          9.D          10.A

 

11.A        12.C        13.A        14.D        15.D

 

16.A        17.B        18.D        19.B        20.B

 

21.C        22.B        23.D        24.A        25.C

 

26.C        27.A        28.C        29.B        30.C

 

31.A        32.A        33.C        34.D        35.D

 

36.C        37.D        38.A        39.B        40.B

 

41.D        42.D        43.A        44.D        45.B

 

46.C        47.D        48.B        49.D        50.B

 

51.C        52.B        53.C        54.B        55.B

 

56.A        57.D        58.B        59.A        60.B

 

61.D        62.B        63.D        64.C        65.C

 

66.D        67.D        68.B        69.A        70.C

 

71.C        72.B        73.D        74.C        75.D

 

76.C        77.C        78.D        79.C        80.C

 

81.B        82.C        83.B        84.B        85.C

 

86.C        87.B        88.B        89.C        90.B

 

91.D        92.C        93.D        94.C        95.A

 

96.D        97.A        98.B        99.A        100.B

 

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