Nursing model paper series 2 – paper 9

Nursing model paper series 2 – paper 9

Answers & PDF link is there at the end of this paper

Q. 01 Ciliary body in the eyeball is the extension of the -

A. Sclera

B. Choroid

C. Retina

D. Cornea

 

 

Q. 02 Which of the following dietary factors increases absorption of calcium?

A. Presence of fatty acids

B. Protein rich diet

C. Phytic acid or excess of fibres

D. Presence of oxalates (cabbage, spinach, etc.)

 

 

Q. 03 Which of the following plays a role in neuromuscular excitability and nerve transmission?

A. Na+

B. K+

C. Ca++

D. All the above

 

Q. 04 Cooking below boiling point (about 85oC) as in case of meat and fish to prevent hardening of fibers is called-

A. Stewing

B. Simmering

C. Roasting

D. Baking

 

 

Q. 05 Which of the following are not affected or changed much by heat?

A. Carbohydrates

B. Protein

C. Fats

D. Vitamins

 

 

 

Q. 06 Which of the following should be boiled thoroughly?

A. Cereals

B. Pulses

C. Green leafy vegetables

D. Fish

Q. 07 Which of the following drugs is used to control the progress of AIDS?

A. Ampicillin

B. Zidovudine

C. Streptomycin

D. Dexona

 

 

Q. 08 Effect of adrenaline is -

A. Increased heart rate

B. Vasoconstriction

C. Vasodilatation

D. Both (a) and (b)

 

 

Q. 09 Which of the following medicine is useful in the treatment of organophosphorus poisoning?

A. Neostigmine

B. Atropine

C. Magnesium sulphate

D. D-penicillamine

 

Q. 10 Medicine given during acute anaphylactic reaction is

A. Atropine

B. Aminophylline

C. Deriphylline

D. Adrenaline

 

 

 

Q. 11 Anti-tubercular drug which does not cross blood brain barrier is

A. Streptomycin

B. INH

C. Rifampicin

D. Pyrazinamide

 

 

 

Q. 12 Which one of the following is not a water-borne or food-borne virus?

A. Polio virus

B. Hepatitis A

C. Norwalk-like virus

D. Ebola virus

Q. 13 Which of the following is the part of third line defense (specific resistance)?

A. Inflammation

B. Antibodies

C. Fever

D. Antimicrobial substance

 

 

 

Q. 14 Which one of the following is a toxoid vaccine?

A. Typhoid

B. Influenza

C. Diphtheria

D. Hepatitis B

 

 

 

Q. 15 The trace elements refers to -

A. The elements nitrogen, phosphorus, and sulfur

B. Vitamins

C. Small mineral requirements

D. Toxic substance

 

Q. 16 Amoebic dysentery is caused by -

A. Amoeba proteus

B. Entamoeba histolytica

C. Balantinium coli

D. Giardia lamblia

 

 

Q. 17 Planning commission is a -

A. Statutory body

B. Executive body

C. Autonomous body

D. None of the these

 

 

Q. 18 Right of information is a -

A. Fundamental right

B. Legal right

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. Neither (a) nor (b)

 

 

Q. 19 Dribble is a term used in -

A. Hockey

B. Football

C. Basketball

D. All the above

 

 

 

Q. 20 The satellite freight city is being developed near which of the following cities?

A. New Delhi

B. Orissa

C. Guragon

D. Kolkata

 

 

 

Q. 21 Most highly intelligent mammals are -

A. Whales

B. Dolphins

C. Elephants

D. Kangaroo

 

Q. 22 The client admitted with angina is given a prescription for nitroglycerin. The client should be instructed to:-

A. Replenish his supply every 3 months

B. Take one every 15 minutes if pain occurs

C. Leave the medication in brown bottle

D. Crush the medication and take with water

 

 

Q. 23 Area rank of Maharashtra in India:

A. 2nd

B. 4th

C. 5th

D. 3rd

 

 

 

Q. 24 A provider calls the nurse to obtain the daily laboratory results of a client who is receiving parenteral nutrition. Which is the most important laboratory result for the nurse to present to the provider?

A. WBC count

B. Serum electrolyte levels

C. Arterial blood gas levels

D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels

Q. 25 The nurse caring for a client with a closed head injury obtains an intracranial pressure (ICP) reading of 17mmHg. The nurse recognizes that:

A. The ICP is elevated and the doctor should be notified

B. The ICP is normal; therefore, no further action is needed

C. The ICP is low and the client needs additional IV fluids

D. The ICP reading is not as reliable as the Glasgow coma scale

 

 

 

Q. 26 While caring for a client with hypertension, the nurse notes the following vital signs, BP of 140/20mmhg, pulse- 120, respirations-36, and temperature-100.8 degree Fahrenheit. The nurse’s initial action should be to.

A. Call the doctor

B. Recheck the vital signs

C. Obtain arterial blood gases

D. Obtain an ECG

 

 

Q. 27 What event occurring in the second trimester helps the expectant mother to accept the pregnancy?

A. Lightening

B. Ballottement

C. Pseudocyesis

D. Quickening

 

 

Q. 28 A nurse is assessing a client with Addison’s disease for signs of hyperkalemia. The nurse expects to note which of the following if hyperkalemia is present?

A. Polyuria

B. Cardiac dysrhythmias

C. Dry mucous membranes

D. Prolonged bleeding time

 

 

 

Q. 29 When administering a tuberculin skin test, the nurse should insert needle at a :

A. 15o angle

B. 30o angle

C. 45o angle

D. 90o angle

 

 

Q. 30 If green’ is called ‘white’, ‘white’ is called yellow’, ‘yellow’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is called ‘pink’ and ‘pink’ is called ‘black’, then what is the colour of sky?

A. green

B. blue

C. pink

D. yellow

 

 

Q. 31 Which finding is the best indication that a client with ineffective airway clearance needs suctioning?

A. Oxygen saturation

B. Respiratory rate

C. Breath sounds

D. Arterial blood gas

 

 

 

Q. 32 A home care nurse visits a pregnant client who has a diagnosis of mild preeclampsia. Which assessment finding indicates a worsening of the preeclampsia and the need to notify the physician?

A. Urinary output has increased

B. Dependent edema has resolved

C. Blood pressure reading is at the prenatal baseline

D. The clients complains of a headache and blurred Vision

 

 

Q. 33 Each time a client is scheduled for a therapy session she develops headache and nausea. The nurse might interpret this behavior as:

A. Conversion

B. Reaction formation

C. Projection

D. Suppression

 

 

Q. 34 A large muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity and helps with breathing.

A. Larynx

B. Trachea

C. Diaphragm

D. None of these

 

Q. 35 The nurse has an order for medication to be administered intrathecally. The nurse is aware that medications will be administered by which method?

A. Intravenously

B. Rectally

C. Intramuscularly

D. Into the cerebrospinal fluid

 

 

 

Q. 36 The nurse is teaching a group of new graduates about the safety needs of the client receiving chemotherapy. Before administering chemotherapy, the nurse should:

A. Administer bolus of IV fluid

B. Administer pain medication

C. Administer an antiemetic

D. Allow the patient a chance to eat

 

 

Q. 37 Total Number of Districts in Maharashtra?

A. 36

B. 34

C. 23

D. 28

Q. 38 A nurse is preparing a woman in labor for an amniotomy. The nurse should

assess which priority data before the procedure?

A. Fetal heart rate

B. Maternal heart rate

C. Fetal scalp sampling

D. Maternal blood pressure

 

 

Q. 39 In severe pre-eclampsia women can develop HELLP syndrome which is very serious and life threatening. Which of the following are characteristic finding in the HELLP syndrome?

A. Elevated liver enzymes

B. Hemolysis

C. Low platelets

D. All of the choices

 

 

 

Q. 40 DIRECTIONS: Select the related numbers from the given alternatives.

21 : 3 :: 574 : ?

A. 23

B. 82

C. 97

D. 113

 

 

 

Q. 41 The client with suspected meningitis is admitted to the unit. The doctor is performing an assessment to determine meningeal irritation and spinal nerve root inflammation. A positive Kernig’s sign is charted if the nurse notes:

A. Pain on flexion of the hip and knee

B. Nuchal rigidity on flexion of the neck

C. Pain when the head is turned to the left side

D. Dizziness when changing positions

 

 

 

Q. 42 If a train, with a speed of 60 km/hr, crossed a pole in 60 second, the length of the train (in meters) is:

A. 1000

B. 900

C. 750

D. 500

Q. 43 The longest vein in the human body is;

A. Jugular

B. Inferior venacava

C. Long saphenous

D. Subclavian

 

 

Q. 44 In which gestational age the Chronic villus sampling (CVS) can be performed trans cervically.

A. 7-9 weeks

B. 10-12 weeks

C. 16-18 weeks

D. 20-22 weeks

 

 

 

Q. 45 Albumin is one of the plasma proteins is synthesized in :

A. Spleen

B. Pancreas

C. Adrenal gland

D. Liver

Q. 46 Which cell feature is responsible for making proteins?

A. Lysosome

B. Ribosomes

C. Mitochondria

D. None of these

 

 

Q. 47 A client with psychotic depression is receiving haloperidol (Haldol). Which of the following side effects is associated with haloperidol?

A. Akathisia

B. Cataracts

C. Diaphoresis

D. Polyuria

 

 

 

Q. 48 In planning care for the patient with ulcerative colitis, the nurse identifies which nursing diagnosis as a priority?

A. Anxiety

B. Impaired skin integrity

C. Fluid volume deficit

D. Nutrition altered, less than body requirements

Q. 49 A nurse is performing an assessment on a pregnant client with a history of cardiac disease. The nurse checks which body area for venous congestion, knowing that it is most commonly noted in this area?

A. Vulva

B. Around the eyes

C. Fingers of the hands

D. Around the abdomen

 

 

Q. 50 A client with increased intracranial pressure is placed on mechanical ventilation with hyperventilation. The nurse knows that the purpose of the hyperventilation is to:

A. Prevent the development of acute respiratory failure

B. Decrease cerebral blood flow

C. Increase systemic tissue perfusion

D. Prevent cerebral anoxia

 

Q. 51 Imbalance or in-coordination of muscle that moves the eyeball is found in

A. Conjunctivitis

B. Squint strabismus

C. Cataract

D. Glaucoma

Q. 52 A nurse in the labour room is caring for a client in the active stage of labour. The nurse is assessing the fetal patterns and notes a late deceleration on the monitor strip. The appropriate nursing action is to -

A. Administer oxygen via face mask

B. Place the mother in a supine position

C. Increase the rate of the Oxytocin (pitocin) intra venous infusion

D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the fetal patterns

 

 

 

Q. 53 After an amniotomy has been performed, a nurse should first assess -

A. For cervical dilation

B. For bladder distention

C. The maternal blood pressure

D. The fetal heart rate pattern

 

 

Q. 54 A client in labour has been pushing effectively for 1 hour. A nurse determines that client’s primary physiological need at this time is to -

A. Ambulate

B. Rest between contractions

C. Change positions frequently

D. Consume oral food and fluids

 

 

Q. 55 A nurse is monitoring a client in the immediate post-partum period for signs of hemorrhage. Which of the following signs, if noted, would be an early sign of excessive blood loss?

A. A temperature of 100.4 degree F

B. A blood pressure change from 130/88 to 124/80 mmHg

C. An increase in the pulse rate from 88 to 102 beats/min

D. An increase in the respiratory rate from 18 to 22 beats/min

 

 

Q. 56 A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a newborn with fetal alcohol syndrome. The nurse should include which priority intervention in the plan of care?

A. Allow the newborn to establish own sleep rest pattern

B. Maintain the newborn in a brightly lighted area of the nursery

C. Encourage frequent handling of the newborn by staff and parents

D. Monitor the newborn’s response to feedings and weight gain pattern

Q. 57 A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving Oxytocin (pitocin) to induce labour. The nurse discontinues the Oxytocin infusion if which of the following is noted on assessment of the client?

A. Fatigue

B. Drowsiness

C. Uterine hyper stimulation

D. Early deceleration of the fetal heart rate

 

 

 

Q. 58 A client in preterm labour (31 weeks) who is dilated to 4 cm has been started on magnesium sulfate and contractions have stopped. If the client’s labour can be inhibited for the next 48 hours, what medication does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?

A. Betamethasone

B. Nalbuphine (Nubain)

C. Rh (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)

D. Dinoprostone (Cervidil vaginal insert)

 

 

Q. 59 The opioid analgesic is administered to a client in labour. The nurse assigned to care for the client ensures that which medication is really available if respiratory depression occurs?

A. Betamethasone

B. Morphine sulfate

C. Naloxone (Narcan)

D. Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol)

 

 

Q. 60 In multipara, time period of latent phase in partograph is about 

A. 4 hours

B. 8 hours

C. 12 hours breach of duty

D. 16 hours

 

 

Q. 61 The nurse, who has received no recent immunization, is stuck with needle that had been used on the patient. Which of the following is this nurse at greater risk of contracting?

A. HIV

B. Hepatitis B

C. Hepatitis C

D. Scabies

Q. 62 Early amniocentesis is done in which period of pregnancy -

A. 12-14 weeks

B. 14-16 weeks

C. 16-18 weeks

D. 9-11 weeks

 

 

Q. 63 21-year old Rashmi has arrived with c/o cramping abdominal pain and mild vaginal bleeding. Culdocentesis shows blood in the culdesa. This client probably has which of the following conditions?

A. Abruptio placentae

B. Ectopic pregnancy

C. Hydatidiform mole

D. Pelvic inflammatory disease

 

 

Q. 64 A patient 34 weeks pregnant, arrives at the hospital with severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness and an increased uterine tone. The patient most likely has which of the following?

A. Abruptio placentae

B. Placenta previa

C. Ectopic pregnancy

D. Hydatidiform mole

 

 

Q. 65 Which of the following explanations best explains why a pregnant client should lie on her left side when resting or sleeping in the later stage of pregnancy?

A. To facilitate digestion

B. To facilitate bladder emptying

C. To prevent compression of vena cava

D. To avoid fetal anomalies

 

 

Q. 66 A woman has just given birth at 42 weeks of gestation. When assessing the neonate, which physical finding is expected?

A. A sleepy, lethargic baby

B. Lanugo covering body

C. Desquamation of the epidermis

D. Vernix caseosa covering the body

 

 

Q. 67 A client is receiving MgSO4 therapy for severe pre-eclampsia. The nurse must be alert for which of the following signs of excessive blood magnesium level?

A. Increase in respiratory rate

B. Sensorium stimulation

C. Disappearance of knee-jerk reflex

D. Appearance of cardiac dysarrythmias

 

 

 

Q. 68 After reviewing the woman’s maternal history of magnesium sulfate during labor, which condition would the nurse anticipate as a potential problem in the neonate?

A. Hypoglycemia

B. Jitteriness

C. Respiratory depression

D. Tachycardia

 

 

Q. 69 27-year old Meera states that after the delivery she has noticed some of episodes of sadness and tearfulness. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

A. Maternity blues

B. Postpartum depression

C. Postpartum mania

D. Postpartum psychosis

 

 

Q. 70 Which one of the following is the ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart disease?

A. IUCD

B. Depo-Provera

C. E-pills

D. Oral contraceptive pills

 

Q. 71 An important landmark of the pelvis that determines the distance of the descent of head is known as

A. Linea terminals

B. Sacurm

C. Ischial spines

D. Ischial tuberosities

 

 

Q. 72 Measles vaccine is kept in refrigerator in -

A. Chilled tray

B. Freezer

C. Tray below freezer

D. Shelves in the door

 

 

Q. 73 Disinfectant used for water purification is -

A. 5 gm bleaching powder for 100 liter of water

B. 10 gm chlorine for one liter of water

C. 2% ethanol solution for one liter of water

D. 5 mg potassium permanganate

 

 

Q. 74 Fertility rate can be reduced by -

A. Spacing of pregnancy

B. Early marriage

C. Female literacy

D. Compulsory sterilization

 

 

Q. 75 The father of Germ theory of disease was

A. Louis Pasteur

B. Newton

C. Virginia Apgav

D. Albert Einstein

 

 

Q. 76 All are true indicators of health for all except -

A. Family size

B. Annual growth rate 1 : 2

C. Life expectancy 64 years

D. IMR < 60

 

 

Q. 77 IUCD acts -

A. Killing spermatozoa

B. Aseptic inflammation of endometrium

C. Increase cervical mucus

D. Preventing the fertilization of ova

 

Q. 78 Under the National Population Policy, family size should be brought down to -

A. 1

B. 2.3

C. 3.2

D. 4.2

 

 

Q. 79 Dengue fever is also called as -

A. Enteric fever

B. Q fever

C. Break bone fever

D. Brain fever

 

 

Q. 80 Which of the following is not a minor ailment?

A. Injuries fall and burn

B. Chest pain in a heart patient

C. Diarrhoea

D. Heart stroke and fainting

 

 

Q. 81 Consent from guardian for MTP is required if -

A. Female is unmarried

B. Female is below 33 years of age

C. Female is divorced

D. Female is below 17 years of age

 

 

 

Q. 82 Which is the most suitable method for disposal of night soil in the rural areas?

A. Biogas plant

B. Composting

C. Dumping

D. Manure pit

 

 

Q. 83 Orthotolidine test is used to determine -

A. Nitrate in water

B. Potassium in water

C. Ammonia in water

D. Free combined chlorine in water

 

 

Q. 84 Vector borne diseases are transmitted by -

A. Air

B. Water

C. Animals

D. Insects

 

 

Q. 85 As per Birth and Death Registration Act, the birth should be registered within

A. 5 days

B. 7 days

C. 14 days

D. 21 days

 

 

Q. 86 Megaloblastic anemia is caused due to deficiency of -

A. B12

B. B2

C. B6

D. B1

 

 

Q. 87 Recommended site for administer of DPT in infant is -

A. Gluteal

B. Deltoid

C. Linear aspect of thigh

D. Forearm

 

 

Q. 88 Floating tip of the iceberg represents -

A. Clinical cases

B. Apparent cases

C. Latent cases

D. Un-diagnosed cases

 

 

Q. 89 False about leprosy eradication programme is -

A. Early detection of cases

B. Disability imitation

C. Long term multi drug therapy

D. Health education

 

 

Q. 90 Case finding in RNTCP is based on -

A. Sputum culture

B. Sputum microscopy

C. X-ray chest

D. Mantoux test/PCR

 

 

Q. 91 PAP smear is the example of -

A. Primordial prevention

B. Primary prevention

C. Secondary prevention

D. tertiary prevention

 

 

 

Q. 92 The most common degenerate joint disease in the elderly, often caused by wear and tear is -

A. Rheumatoid arthritis

B. Osteoarthritis

C. Gouty arthritis

D. Ankylosing spondylitis

 

 

Q. 93 Haemopoiesis is a process of the production of -

A. Blood plasma

B. Erythrocytes

C. Bone marrow

D. Haemoglobin

 

 

Q. 94 Which of the following is not required for clot formation?

A. Vitamin K

B. Calcium

C. Plasmin

D. Blood cell

 

 

Q. 95 The wave of contraction is under the control of -

A. Parasympathetic nerve

B. Mandibular nerve

C. Phrenic nerve

D. Auditory nerve

 

 

Q. 96 Which of the following is not the function of the liver?

A. Carbohydrate, lipid and protein metabolism

B. Excretion of bilirubin

C. Nucleic acid metabolism

D. Synthesis of bile salts and activation of Vitamin D

   

 

 

Q. 97 Which part of brain is associated with control of breathing?

A. Midbrain

B. Pons

C. Medulla oblongata

D. Both (b) and (c)

 

 

Q. 98 Which part of brain regulates posture and balance?

A. Midbrain

B. Cerebellum

C. Diencephalon

D. Cerebrum

 

 

Q. 99 Hormones are -

A. Enzymes

B. Proenzymes

C. Inorganic chemicals

D. Organic chemicals

 

 

Q. 100 Myxedema is caused by the deficiency of a hormone secreted by

A. Parathyroid

B. Hypothalamus

C. Thyroid

D. Pineal body

 

 

Answers

1.B          2.B          3.D          4.B          5.C

 

6.B          7.B          8.D          9.A          10.D

 

11.A        12.D        13.B        14.C        15.C

 

16.B        17.A        18.B        19.C        20.C

 

21.B        22.C        23.D        24.B        25.B

 

26.A        27.D        28.B        29.A        30.C

 

31.C        32.D        33.A        34.C        35.D

 

36.C        37.A        38.A        39.D        40.B

 

41.A        42.A        43.C        44.B        45.D

 

46.A        47.A        48.C        49.A        50.B

 

51.B        52.A        53.D        54.B        55.C

 

56.D        57.C        58.A        59.C        60.A

 

61.B        62.B        63.B        64.A        65.C

 

66.C        67.C        68.C        69.A        70.A

 

71.C        72.B        73.C        74.C        75.A

 

76.A        77.B        78.B        79.C        80.B

 

81.D        82.A        83.D        84.C        85.B

 

86.A        87.B        88.A        89.C        90.B

 

91.C         92.B        93.B        94.C        95.A

 

96.C        97.D        98.B        99.D        100.C

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