Nursing model questions – series 2 – paper 2
Q. 01 Most common site of hematoma during postpartum
period?
A. Uterine hematoma
B. Vaginal hematoma
C. cervical hematoma
D. Vulvar hematoma
Q. 02 The physician orders an I.M. injection for a client. Which factor may affect the drug absorption rate from an I.M. injection site?
A. Muscle tone
B. Muscle strength
C. Blood flow to the injection site
D. Amount of body fat at the injection site
Q. 03 After TURP, the client having continues bladder irrigation. Which of these statements explain the reason for continuous bladder irrigation?
A. To dilute urine
B. To remove clot from the bladder
C. To maintain the patency of the bladder
D. To maintain the patency of the catheter
Q. 04 Which of the following is not true of dementia?
A. Patients can have Hallucinations
B. People with dementia act uncooperative to be
spiteful.
C. People with dementia are often frightened and
anxious.
D. Grooming is difficult for patients with dementia.
Q.05 A patient tells a nurses’ aide that the foods on her tray conflict with her religious beliefs. The nurses’ assistant should:
A. Tell the patient that it is all that is available.
B. Leave the tray there in case she changes her mind.
C. Take the tray away and notify the charge nurse.
D. Check the patient’s religious preference on the
chart.
Q.06 A patient who is on suicide watch should be
allowed to have:
A. A glass container of flowers in her room.
B. A leather belt
C. A mirror.
D. Pictures of her family in an album.
Q.07 There is an order to give the patient a shower, but she refuses. The nurses’ assistant should:
A. Document in the chart that the patient refused to
shower.
B. Tell her that she must do what is ordered
C. Take the patient to the shower anyway.
D. Threaten to use restraints if she does not
cooperate.
Q.08 After the end of the shift some nurses’ aides go
to a restaurant.
Acceptable topics of conversation would include:
A. Their patients.
B. Procedures that others in the restaurant might not
want to hear about
C. Hospital politics.
D. The weather.
Q.09 The architect of Indian Foreign Policy-
A. Gandhiji
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Motilal Nehru
D. Vallabh bhai Patel
Q.10 Smriti Irani is the Union Minister of-
A. Defense
B. Health
C. Human Resources Development
D. Panchayat
Q.11 The European country recently in news for
economic crisis is-
A. Rome
B. Greece
C. Netherlands
D. Germany
Q.12 The Battle of Kolachal held in the year-
A. 1541
B. 1441
C. 1841
D. 1741
Q.13 'Natan' is a cinema directed by-
A. Shyam Prasad
B. Kamal
C. Jiju Ashokan
D. Premlal
Q.14 Pandit K.P. Karappan was a reformer from-
A. Pulaya community
B. Ezhava
C. Araya
D. Paraya
Q.15 Kerala State Police Complaint Authority Chairman
is-
A. Justice Usha
B. Justice R.M. Lodha
C. Justice Vinod Chandran
D. Justice Narayana Kurup
Q.16 Santhal Rebellion was led by-
A. Sanyasis
B. Tribals
C. Army
D. Kings
Q.17 The highest court of a state-
A. High Court
B. Supreme Court
C. Chief Judicial Magistrate Court
D. District Court
Q.18 The Kerala Chala Chitra Academy situated in-
A. Kochi
B. Trivandrum
C. Thrissur
D. Calicut
Q.19 'The Kesari' was the News Paper run by-
A. Gandhiji
B. Balagangadara Tilak
C. EMS
D. Dr. Palpu
Q.20 Aam Admi Party has the Govt. in-
A. Delhi
B. Punjab
C. Haryana
D. Bihar
Q.21 Sabarmati Ashram founded by Gandhi in _____
State.
A. Bihar
B. UP
C. Gujarat
D. Madhyapradesh
Q.22 'Do or Die' was the slogan of Gandhi related to-
A. Quit India
B. Simon Commission
C. Non-co-operation
D. Civil Disobedience
Q.23 'INDIA WINS FREEDOM' written by-
A. Nehru
B. Abdul Kalam Azad
C. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
D. Gandhiji
Q.24 Nursing is considered as-
A. Profession of charity
B. Profession of caring
C. Profession of teaching
D. All of the above
Q.25 Ethics means-
A. Study of belief and values
B. Study of human behavior
C. Study of human concepts
D. Study of philosophical ideas of right or wrong
behavior
Q.26 It is a way of reviewing the records for the
purpose of collecting data-
A. Research
B. Audit
C. Record
D. Report
Q.27 One of the purpose of documentation-
A. Legal record and audit
B. Keep the document up to date
C. Diagnostic purpose
D. Development of Nursing care plan
Q.28 Emergency admission means admitting the patient
for-
A. Routine examination
B. Treatment
C. Acute conditions
D. None of the above
Q.29 The most important and frequent mode of transmission of nosocomial infection is-
A. Contact transmission
B. Airborne
C. Droplet
D. Vehicle
Q.30 Hazard of restraints are-
A. Nerve damage
B. Pressure sore
C. Foot drop
D. All of the above
Q.31 Indication for nasogastric intubation-
A. Paralysis of face and throat
B. Abdominal surgery
C. Paralytic ileus
d. Acute abdominal pain
Q.32 After giving nasogastric feed, elevate the head
end of 30-60 degree at least-
A. 40 mints
B. 30 mints
C. 60 mints
D. 10 mints
Q.33 Anuria means-
A. Formation and excretion of urine less than 100 ml
in 24 hrs
B. Formation and excretion of urine less than 50 ml in
24 hrs
C. Formation and excretion of urine less than 10 ml in
24 hrs
D. No formation of urine
Q.34 The replacement of air in the lungs with fluid or
a mass-
A. Consolidation
B. Emphysema
C. Empyema
D. Fibrosis
Q.35 Invasion of micro-organism to a susceptible host
is known as-
A. Inflammation
B. Infection
C. Infiltration
D. Contamination
Q.36 Never apply heat to open wounds because-
A. It may cause bleeding
B. It may enhance edema
C. It may enhance discomfort
D. It may spread infection to surrounding tissues
Q.37 The reason for contraindication of oral intake
is-
A. Unconscious
B. Mouth trauma
C. Indigestion
D. All of the above
Q.38 Z track injection is a method of injecting
medication into-
A. Large muscle
B. Long muscle
C. Short muscle
D. Strong muscle
Q.39 A systematic or continuous procedure of collecting data regarding the origin and extent of a disease-
A. Research
B. Attenuation
C. Notification
D. Surveillance
Q.40 One of the Reason for impaired gas exchange is-
A. Low tidal volume
B. Increased mucous production
C. Decreased air entry
D. Both (1) and (2)
Q.41 Nursing management of minor burns-
A. Calculation of burn area and fluid
B. Initial evaluation and minimizing pain, anxiety and
administration of tetanusimmunization
C. Monitor the airway of breathing
D. Administration of antibiotics
Q.42 The reason for incubating a nasogastric tube into the patients with extensive burns is-
A. To improve breathing
B. To administer feeds
C. To prevent the risk of aspiration
D. To aspirate the stomach contents
Q.43 The nursing interventions for patients with acute
respiratory distress syndrome-
A. Maintain patent airway
B. Monitor arterial blood gas values
C. Remove the misconceptions by discussion
D. All the above
Q.44 The symptoms and signs of cardiac arrest
includes-
A. Slow respiration and reduced oxygen in tissues
B. Loss of consciousness and sweating
C. Rapid breathing and slow pulse rate
D. Absence of pulses and loss of conscious
Q.45 First aid measures for rabid dog bite-
A. Perform through washing of the bitten area with
soap and water
B. Perform through washing of the bitten area with
Dettol
C. Perform through washing of the bitten area with
saline
D. Perform through washing of the bitten area with
sterile water
Q. 46 Pre-operative nursing care includes-
A. Provide complete description of surgery,
preparation of patient, exercise andpain relief
B. Elicitation of health history, collecting
information and teaching
C. Documentation of baseline vital signs
D. Teaching the patient and family about the surgery
Q.47 Risk factor for breast cancer-
A. Recurrent infection and inflammation of breast
B. Ovarian and hormonal function
C. Dietary and environmental function
D. Both (2) and (3)
Q.48 It is a type of refractory error in which light
rays are focused in front of retina?
A. Hypermetropia
B. Myopia
C. Metropia
D. Astigmatism
Q.49 Primary amenorrhea means-
A. Absence of menstruation for 3 months
B. Absence of menstruation for 6 months
C. Absence of menstruation for 1 year
D. Failure to begin spontaneous menstruation by the
age of 16
Q.50 The most important Nurses advice on patient with
epilepsy-
A. Take the medications regularly and consult the
doctor in case of problem
B. Do not sit near the fire and do regular exercise
C. Do not engage in any activity and consult the
doctor in case of problem
D. Do not develop stress and fatigue
Q. 51 A patient who wishes to leave the hospital prior
to the completion of treatment:
A. May not do so under any circumstances.
B. Must be allowed to do so.
C. May do so only if the doctor agrees.
D. Must sign a release form before he/she leaves.
Q. 52 Medical treatment of coronary artery disease includes which of the following procedures?
A. Oral medication administration
B. Coronary artery bypass surgery
C. Cardiac catheterization
D. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
Q. 53 Pulse oximetry is used during endoscopic
procedures to:-
A. Monitor the depth of sedation.
B. Measure carbon dioxide retention levels.
C. Reduce the required number of nursing staff.
D. Determine arterial blood oxygen saturation.
Q. 54 The presence of Helicobacter pylori predisposes
patients to:
A. Esophageal ulceration.
B. Duodenal ulceration.
C. Gastric ulceration.
D. Mouth ulceration.
Q. 55 Smooth muscle relaxants administered during an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram:-
A. Increase prothrombin time.
B. Induce duodenal Atonia
C. Decrease bile flow.
D. Induce bradycardia.
Q. 56 Specimens are more easily obtained from flat
esophageal lesions using forceps with which feature-
A. Rat-toothed cups.
B. Alligator jaws.
C. Magnetic tips.
D. Cups with a central spike.
Q. 57 Which of the following symptoms usually signifies rapid expansion and impending rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A. Lower back pain
B. Absent pedal pulses
C. Angina
D. Abdominal pain
Q. 58 To maximize iron absorption, patients should be advised to take iron supplements:
A. Before meals
B. At bedtime
C. After meals
D. With meals
Q. 59 Malabsorption in Coeliac Disease is due to:
A. Atrophy and reduced enzyme activity in small bowel
villi.
B. Increased intestinal motility and diarrhea.
C. Inflammation of the large bowel and increased
motility.
D. Pyloric inflammation and gastric stasis.
Q. 60 What position should the nurse place the head of the bed in to obtain the most accurate reading of jugular vein distention?
A. High-fowler's
B. Raised 30 degrees
C. Raised 10 degrees
D. Supine position
Q. 61 The state of complete disorganization and confusion which lead to loss of identity and direction:
A. Chaos
B. Bargaining
C. Equilibrium
D. Resistance
Q. 62 Which of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease cannot be corrected?
A. Cigarette smoking
B. Heredity
C. DM
D. HPN
Q. 63 Which of the following means translating the message into verbal and non-verbal symbols to communicate the receiver:
A. Feedback
B. Decoding
C. Channel
D. Encoding
Q. 64 The condition, which lacks complete information
on action alternatives:-
A. Emergency
B. Uncertainty condition
C. Risk condition
D. Crisis condition
Q. 65 The manager gives incentive for one employee on their extra effort on new project, the power which used in this situation is:
A. Coercive
B. Expert
C. Legitimate
D. Reward
Q. 66 The mistakes done by the head nurse done during performance appraisal all the following except:
A. Paired comparison
B. Horns effect
C. Central tendency error
D. Hollow effect
Q. 67 All of the following is Personnel employment
policies except
A. Hiring new employees
B. Termination of present employees
C. Promotion or reward of the present employees
D. Health care programs
Q. 68 Collaboration in providing care to a group of
patients under the
direction of a professional nurse is:
A. Team method
B. Primary method
C. Case method
D. Group Method
Q. 69 Which of the following documentation used by the head nurse to communicate information about patient has sudden hemorrhage to another head nurse in the next shift?
A. Assignment record
B. Shift report
C. Kardex record
D. Incident report
Q. 70 Which of the following involves all the
assessment methods that occur after the patient has been Discharged:
A. Concurrent evaluation.
B. Retrospective evaluation.
C. Quality assurance.
D. Auditing.
Q. 71 A patient Named Deepa George with a history of
diabetes mellitus is in the second post-operative day following
cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid
foods. The nurse Reena enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's
symptoms?
A. Diabetic ketoacidosis.
B. Hypoglycemia.
C. Hyperglycemia.
D. None of the Above
Q. 72 Atherosclerosis impedes coronary blood flow by
which of the following mechanisms?
A. Plaques obstruct the vein
B. Hardened vessels dilate to allow the blood to flow
through
C. Blood clots form outside the vessel wall
D. Plaques obstruct the artery
Q. 73 Nurse Mr. Kavya caring for several patients on
the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic
internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most
likely to have this procedure?
A. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia
and syncopal episodes.
B. A post-operative coronary bypass patient,
recovering on schedule.
C. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction
without cardiac muscle damage.
D. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and
fatigue.
Q. 74 Children learn through modeling or imitation. Such a suggestion would be best associated with-
A. Skinner
B. Pavlov
C. Bandura
D. Erikson
Q. 75 Which list below explains Maslow's hierarchy of
human needs?
A. Justice, security, esteem, safety
B. Physiological, safety, social, esteem,
self-actualization
C. Safety, esteem, security, social
D. None of these
Q. 76 If one believes a child will "grow out of it", referring to a behavior or a stage, this is best related to which theory?
A. Maturational
B. Psychosocial
C. Sensitive
D. Constructivist
Q. 77 Sigmund Freud saw the self as having three
parts. The first is-
A. The id.
B. The ego.
C. The superego.
D. The latency period
Q. 78 Gender differences are influenced by
A. Culture.
B. Environment.
C. Nature and nurture.
D. All of these
Q. 79 Maturational theory suggests-
A. Children are influenced greatly by their
environment.
B. Children grow and change based upon their own
genetic makeup.
C. Children are born as blank slates.
D. All of these
Q. 80 Sigmund Freud is known for
A. Stages of cognitive development.
B. The theory of psychosexual development.
C. Studying the behavior of monkeys.
D. None of these
Q. 81 Piaget's three mechanisms for learning include-
A. Homologous, hierarchical, decalage.
B. Adaptation, assimilation, and accommodation.
C. Sensorimotor, preoperational, and concrete
operations.
D. Reinforcers, stimulus, and response.
Q. 82 Behavioral theorists include
A. Pavlov, Skinner, and Watson.
B. Piaget, Vygotsky, and Freud.
C. Bandura, Pavlov, and Piaget.
D. None of these
Q. 83 Which of the following terms are related to Lev
Vygotsky?
A. Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete, and formal
operations
B. Zone of proximal development
C. Scaffolding
D. Both B and C
Q. 84 Early sign of DIC
A.Pain
B. Vascular obstruction
C. Clot formation
D. Hematuria
Q. 85 Which is the following largest and most muscular
chamber of heart
A. Right atrium
B. Right ventricle
C. Left ventricle
D. Left atrium
Q. 86 Uterine contractions monitored by .............?
A. Friedman's curve
B. Tonometer
C. Tocodynamometer
D. Fetoscope
Q. 87 Which of the following drug shows drug holiday
A. Ecospirin
B. Streptokinase
C. Morphine
D. Digoxin
Q. 88 The Ward nurse administering mannitol and the doctor advised slowly to be given. Why? The risk for ---?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Cerebral embolism
C. Hypertension
D. Fluid overload
Q. 89 The nurse is collecting data on a client before surgery. Which statement by the client would alert the nurse to the presence of risk factors for postoperative complications?
A. "I haven't been able to eat anything solid for
the past 2 days."
B. "I've never had surgery before."
C. "I had an operation 2 years ago, and I don't
want to have another one."
D. "I've cut my smoking down from two packs to
one pack per day."
Q. 90 The physician prescribes morphine 4 mg I.V. every 2 hours as needed for pain. The nurse should be on the alert for which adverse reaction to morphine?
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Neutropenia
D. Respiratory depression
Q. 91 Highest degree of abortion seen among-
A. Husband with A blood group and wife with O group
B. Husband with O blood group and wife with A group
C. Husband with A blood group and wife with B group
D. Husband with AB blood group and wife with O group
Q. 92 Deferoxamine is administered in overdose of:
A. Iron
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Digoxin
D. Beta blockers
Q. 93 The nurse is preparing to teach a client how to use crutches. Before initiating the lesson, the nurse performs an assessment on the client. The priority nursing assessment should include which focus?
A. The client's feelings about the restricted mobility
B. The client's fear related to the use of the
crutches
C. The client's muscle strength and previous activity
level
D. The client's understanding of the need for
increased mobility
Q. 94 Most specific enzyme for MI?
A.CPK-M
B.CPK-BB
C.CPK-MB
D.LDH
Q. 95 The nurse has developed a plan of care for a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which client problem should the nurse select as the priority in the plan of care?
A. Malnutrition
B. Inability to cope
C. Concern about body appearance
D. Lack of knowledge about nutrition
Q. 96 What is the most appropriate method to use when drawing blood from a child with hemophilia?
A. Use finger punctures for lab draws.
B. Be prepared to administer platelets for prolonged
bleeding.
C. Apply heat to the extremity before venipunctures.
D. Schedule all labs to be drawn at one time.
Q. 97 Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea after delivery or in postpartum period..(in proper lactating women)..??
A. Oxytocin
B. Prolactin
C. FSH
D. LH
Q. 98 Why should an infant be quiet and seated upright
when the nurse checks his fontanels?
A. The mother will have less trouble holding a quiet,
upright infant.
B. Lying down can cause the fontanels to recede,
making assessment more difficult.
C. The infant can breathe more easily when sitting up.
D. Lying down and crying can cause the fontanels to
bulge.
Q. 99 Which trait is the most important for ensuring
that a nurse-manager is effective?
A. Communication skills
B. Clinical abilities
C. Health care experience
D. Time management skills
Q. 100 Which of the following is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with renal calculi?
A. Risk for infection
B. Functional urinary incontinence
C. Ineffective tissue perfusion
D. Decreased cardiac output
Answers
1.D
2.C 3.B 4.B 5.C
6.B 7.A 8.D 9.B 10.C
11.B 12.D 13.B 14.C 15.D
16.B 17.A 18.B 19.B 20.A
21.C 22.A 23.B 24.A 25.C
26.B 27.A 28.C 29.A 30.D
31.A 32.B 33.A 34.A 35.B
36.A 37.D 38.A 39.D 40.D
41.B 42.C 43.D 44.D 45.A
46.A 47.D 48.B 49.D 50.A
51.B 52.A 53.D 54.B 55.B
56.D 57.A 58.D 59.A 60.B
61.A 62.B 63.D 64.C 65.D
66.A 67.D 68.A 69.B 70.B
71.B 72.D 73.A 74.C 75.B
76.A 77.C 78.D 79.B 80.B
81.B 82.A 83.D 84.D 85.C
86.C 87.D 88.A 89.D 90.D
91.A 92.A 93.C 94.C 95.A
96.D 97.B 98.D 99.A 100.A
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