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CENTRAL COUNCIL FOR RESEARCH IN SIDDHA STAFF NURSE question paper

Exam Date: 28.5.2017         
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Answers & PDF link is there at the end of this paper

1. Vitamin A  supplementation is given to children from the age of  1 to 6 years for every   
a) 3 months           
b) 6 Months               
c) Yearly               
d) 8 Months 


2. Which micro-organism is associated with cervical cancer? 
a) human papilloma virus                
b) cytomegalovirus  
c) mylobacterium avium                  
d) pheumocystis carinii 


3. Normal percentage of carbohydrate in human milk is 
a) 4%                      
b) 10%                       
c) 7%                           
d) 6%

4. A 4 years old female child vomited and her mother stated, “She vomited 200 ml of the formula feeding in this morning.” what type of data is this?
 a) objective data from a secondary source 
b) objective data from a primary source
c) subjective data from a secondary source 
d) subjective data from a primary source 

5. The nurse choose to assess an apical pulse instead of a radial pulse. Which of the following client’s condition influenced the nurse’s decision?  a) the client had surgery 18 hrs before   
b) the client has an arrhythmia 
c) the client is in shock                        
d) a client’s response to orthostatic changes 

6. Lactated Ringer’s solution is contraindicated in 
a) hypervolemia
b) burns
c) lactic acidosis
d) fluid loss as bile or diarrhea 

7. ECG changes in Myocardial infarction is 
a) ST segment elevation               
b) wide ORS complex  
c) presence of U wave                 
d) Prolonged PR interval 

8. Which of the following is not required to clot formation  ? 
a) vit K                            
b) calcium                  
c) plasmin              
d) fibrinogen 

9. A menstrual condition characterized by severe and frequent menstrual cramps and pain associated with menstruation is termed as  
a) dysmenorrhea    
b) amenorrhea            
c) hypermenorrhea       
d) polymenorrhea     

10. Which precaution is used during phototherapy? 
a) leave infant’s clothes on                        
b) Check the infant’s temperature once a day 
c) Repositioning the infant frequently       
d) Cover the infant’s eyes

11. Formula for IQ is =  
a) IQ = MA / CA     
b) IQ = MA x 100/ CA         
c) IQ =  CA  x 100/ MA                    
d) IQ = CA / MA                                                                          

12. Body temperature is regulated by  
a) kidney            
 b) lungs               
c) heart                 
d) hypothalamus 

13. Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure is 
a) 110 -180 mm of H2O           
b) 180-300 mm of H2O         
c) 200- 400 mm of H2O           
d) 5 – 10 mm of H2O           

14. Another name for knee- chest position 
a) genu–dorsal           
b) genu-pectoral         
c) lithotomy           
d)  sim’s  

15. The nurse should monitor the patients after the thrombolytic therapy for the following adverse effects
 a) chest pain          
b) cyanosis           
c) hemoptysis                    
d) tachycardia  


16. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by 
a) vitamin B12 and folate                   
b) protein deficiency          
c) thiamine deficiency                     
d) vitamin C deficiency  
17. Which one of the following is not a diuretic 
a) enalapril               
b) mannitol             
c) spironolactone              
d) furosemide 

18. Pentavalent vaccine protects against 
a) DPT, Measles, Rubella        
b) DPT, Polio, Hepatitis  B.  
c) DPT, Polio, Hepatitis A      
d) DPT, haemophilus influenza-b, Hepatitis B 

19. FSH is secreted by 
a) ovary          
b) hypothalamus        
c) anterior pituitary       
d) posterior pituitary 

20. The most common symptom of oesophageal carcinoma would be 
a) sore throat     
 b) dysphagia         
c) weight loss        
d) haemorrhage 

21. The cardinal sign of meningitis is 
a) Kernig’s sign         
b) diarrhea            
c) common cold               
d) fever


22. How many calories are there in 1 gm of fat? 
a) 9 calories               
b) 7 calories           
c) 5 calories               
d) 25 calories   

23. Which nutrient helps in tissue repair? 
a) fat                    
b) protein                 
c) vitamin                 
d) carbohydrate 

24. Infective type of food poisoning 
a) Salmonella           
b) Staphylococcus           
c) Clostridium          
 d) E. coli 

25. The most common pathologic findings in individuals at risk for sudden cardiac death is 
a) aortic valve disease                         
 b) mitral valve disease  
c) left ventricular dysfunction            
d) atherosclerotic heart disease 

26. Low protein diet is ordered for patients with  
a) anaemia         
b) acute nephritis            
c) burns            
d) gastritis 

27. Sites for bone marrow examination include all except 
a) sternum      
b) posterior superior iliac spine        
c) lumbar vertebrae        
d) femur 

28. Bromhexine drugs are used for  
a) leprosy                      
b) acute myeloid leukaemia   
c) oesophagitis             
d) to liquify respiratory secretions   Download From

29. Structures of the body that are responsible for conveying information / message around the body are called 
a) lymphocyte             
b) alveoli              
c) neurons          
d) nephrons 

30. How many drops in a standard drip set makes one ml ? 
a) 20              
b) 16               
c) 15                
d) 10

31. Which of the following minerals should be taken by a child suffering from  Rickets ? 
a) potassium          
b) calcium            
c) sodium               
d) iron 

32. Heat application is contraindicated in appendicitis because it 
a) can cause the appendix to rupture and cause peritonitis  
b) can mask symptoms of acute appendicitis 
c) will increase peristalsis throughout the abdomen  
d) will arrest progression of the disease 

33. Kaposi’s sarcoma is associated with 
a) human papilloma virus                  
b) human T cell lymphocytic virus type (HTLV-1) 
c) human immunodeficiency virus    
d) epstein barr virus 

34. While instilling ear drops, the ear canal of an adult is straightened by pulling the pinna 
a) down and back         
b) up and back           
c) straight down           
d) straight back    

35. Frozen DPT vaccine should be 
a) shaken thoroughly before use     
b) allowed to melt before use  
c) discarded                                    
d) brought to room temperature before use 

36. The most common cause of blindness in India is 
a) cataract                
b) trachoma          
c) refractive errors       
d) vitamin deficiency 

37. Human milk is rich in all, except 
a) vitamin A           
 b) vitamin C              
c) iron                   
d) vitamin E 

38. Window period in HIV indicates 
a) time period between infection and onset of the first symptom 
b) time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV  c) time period between infection and maximum multiplication of the causative organism
d) none of the above 

39. Islets of Langerhans produces 
 a) bile            
b) trypsin           
c) Insulin                 
d) rennin 

40. The part of the brain, which is responsible for the coordination  of  movement is 
a) brain stem          
b) cerebellum      
c) thalamus
d) hypothalamus        

41. Anterior fontanelle  normally closes between the ages 
a) 2 & 3 months  
b) 12 & 18 months   
c) 3 & 6 months  
d) 1 &9 months 

42. Which  one of the following is a combined (triple) vaccine? 
a) oral polio            
b) BCG    
c) DPT    
d) rabies 

43. Infection of the middle ear is called  
a) sinusitis   
b) mastoiditis 
c) otitis media  
d) labrynthitis 

44. The process of development of a matured ovum is  called 
a) ovulation     
b) oophoria   
c) oogenesis   
d) oocyte 

45. One teaspoonful of medicine is equal to
a) 10 ml               
b) 15 ml                
c) 5 ml                  
d) 20 ml 

46. Rods and cones are the structures of 
a) middle ear               
b) eyes                
c) ovary               
d) lungs   

47. The disease characterised by proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, diffuse edema, high serum cholesterol and hyperlipidaemia 
a) pyelonephritis       
b) nephrolithiasis    
c) nephrotic syndrome    
d) acute renal failure
    
48. Pertussis vaccine is contraindicated if the child has 
a) a history of convulsion               
b) a history of juvenile diabetes 
c) a history of jaundice                    
d) a history of tuberculosis 

49. Vaccine contraindicated during pregnancy is 
a) rubella                  
b) OPV                           
c) tetanus                
d) influenza 

50. Addison’s disease is otherwise called 
a) acute adrenocortical insufficiency                  
b) hperpituitarism 
c) chronic adrenocortical insufficiency              
d) hyperaldosteronism

51. Which is the overall, priority goal of inpatient psychiatric treatment?  a) maintenance of stability in the community          
b) medication compliance 
c) stabilization and return to the community           
d) better communication skill 

52. Which one of the following is an antioxidant? 
a) calcium             
b) vitamin E              
c) vitamin B                 
d) vitamin A 

53. What element of the communication process summarizes the conversation with the patient and ensures the  patients’ understanding? 
a) referent          
b) channel           
c) environment              
d) feed back 

54. The best approach to facilitate communication with the patient with bilateral hearing loss, wearing an aid in  her left ear 
a) speak directly into the patient’s left air                    
b) speak from behind 
c) face the patient, speak slower in normal volume    
d) face the patient and speak louder 

55. Segregation of hospital waste is done  
a) at the source of generation                         
 b) while transporting the waste  
c) at the level of municipality disposal            
d) while burning the waste  

56. SARS is a  
a) bacterial infection      
b)viral infection    
c) fungal infection   
d) paracitic infection 

57. “Plumbism”  refers to 
a) mercury poisoning   
b) lead poisoning  
c) arsenic poisoning  
d) asbestos poisoning 

58. Application of the drug to the skin 
a) inhalation        
b) insertion             
c) instillation          
d) inunction  

59. The angle of insertion for intramuscular injection is ……degrees 
a) 15                 
b) 30                  
c) 45                
d) 90   

60. Which of the following position the nurse places the client when the epidural regional block is administered? 
a) lithotomy            
b) supine            
c) prone          
d) lateral 

61. The placenta should be delivered within how many minutes after the delivery of the baby?
a) 25 minutes             
b) 30 minutes             
c) 35 minutes               
d) 60 minutes  

62. In a lady having a regular 28 day menstrual cycle, what is the safe period? 
a) initial 28 days        
b) later 14 days       
c) first and last 7 days       
d) first 7 days only 

63. Pregnant women should be immunized for 
a) hepatitis vaccine      
b) TT vaccine           
c) MMR vaccine          
d) BCG vaccine 

64. Professional negligence is legally termed as  
a) crime  
b) assault  
c) malpractice          
d) slander 

65. A drug commonly used to dilate the pupil of the eye is called 
a) miotic            
b) mydriatic             
c) cycloplegic             
d) None of the above.  

66. Exclusive breast feeding is for 
a) 3 months                
b) 6 months                
c) 8 months                
d) 1 year  

67. The most common cause of urinary retention in women is 
a) urethral stricture      
b) spinal cord injury     
 c) cystocele        
d) detrusor failure 

68. The needle used for liver biopsy is
a ) tru–cut biopsy needle             
b) scalp vein needle  
 c) vim-silverman needle            
 d) jamshidi needle 

69. How often should a tracheostomy tube be changed 
a) 1-2 weeks          
 b) 2-3 weeks          
 c) 3-4 weeks           
d) 3-4 days   

70. Sodium restricted diet is indicated for clients with   
a) congestive cardiac failure 
b) burns
c) pre eclampsia
d) cholelithiasis

Answers 
1.B          2.A          3.C          4.A          5.B

6.C          7.A          8.C          9.A          10.D

11.B        12.D        13.A        14.B        15.B

16.A        17.A        18.D        19.C        20.B

21.D        22.A        23.B        24.A        25.D


26.B        27.D        28.D        29.C        30.C

31.B        32.A        33.C        34.B        35.C

36.A        37.C        38.B        39.C        40.B

41.B        42.C        43.C        44.A        45.C

46.B        47.C        48.A        49.A        50.C


51.C        52.B        53.D        54.C        55.A

56.B        57.B        58.D        59.D        60.D

61.B        62.C        63.B        64.C        65.B

66.B        67.C        68.C        69.C        70.A 

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