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1. Which of the following is not
considered as Metaparadigm of nursing?
(a) Person
(b) Environment
(c) Nursing
(d) Diagnosis
2. Which of the following is considered as
a example of intentional tort?
(a) Malpractice
(b) Negligence
(c) Breach of duly
(d) False imprisonment
3. Which of the following clinical
findings indicates that the patient is experiencing hypokalemia?
(a) Edema
(b) Muscle spasms
(c) Kussaumal breathing
(d) Abdominal distention
4. A patient is wearing a soft
wrist-safety device. Which of the following nursing assessment is considered
abnormal?
(a) Palpable radical pulse
(b) Palpable ulnar pulse
(c) Capillary refill within 3 seconds
(d) Bluish fingernails, cool and pale
finger
5. The nurse is instructing a group of
volunteer nurses on the technique of administering the BCG vaccine. What method
should the nurse teach the group to administer the vaccine correctly?
(a) Z-track injection
(b)
Intravenous injection
(c) Subcutaneous injection
(d) Intradermal scratch injection
6. A client is to receive 2000 ml of I.V.
fluids in 12 hours. The drop factor is 10 gtt/ml. At how many drops per minute
should the flow rate be set?
(a) 22 drops/min
b) 24 drops/min
(c) 26 drops/min
(d) 28 drops/min
7. Tube feeding should be delayed if the
amount of gastric content exceeds
(a) 20 ml
(b) 25 ml
(c) 30 ml
(d) 50 ml
8. In the absence of pathology, client
respiratory centre is stimulated by (a)
Oxygen
(b) Lactic acid
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Calcium ion
9. In Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV),
what kind of immunity is lost?
(a) Active immunity
(b) Passive immunity
(c) Humoral immunity
(d) Cellular immunity
10. Which one of the chronic conditions
contraindicates the use of ice on sprained ankle?
(a) Gastritis
(b) Diabetes
(c) Glaucoma
d) Osteoporosis
11. Thorocentesis is useful in treating
all pulmonary disorders, except: (a)
Haemothorax
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Hydrothorax
(d) Empyema
12. Absence of an informed consent while
performing a procedure on patient can lead to which of the following charges?
(a) Fraud
(b) Assault and battery
(c) Harassment
(d) Breach of confidentiality
13. Process of formal negotiations on
working conditions between a group of nurses and employer is
(a) Grievance
(b) Arbitration
(c) Collective bargaining
(d) Strike
14. Allen’s test checks the patency of the
(a) Ulnar artery
(b) Radial artery
(c) Carotid artery
(d) Brachial artery
15. Needle Stick Safety and Prevention Act
was passed in
(a) November, 2000
(b) December, 1998
(c) November, 2002
(d) April, 2010
16. What instructions should be given to
the client before undergoing a paracentaisis?
(a) NPO 12 hrs before procedure
(b) Empty bladder before procedure
(c) Strict bed rest following
procedure
(d) Empty bowel before procedure
17. Application of force to another person
without lawful justification is (a)
Battery
(b) Negligence
(c) Tort
(d) Crime
18. Colour coding for nitrous oxide
cylinder is
(a) Black
(b) Black with white shoulder
(c) French Blue
(d) Gray
19. Principle of good mechanics
includes
(a) Keeping the knees in locked
position
(b) Maintaining the wide base of support
and bending at the knee
(c) Bending at the waist to maintain a
centre of gravity
(d) Holding objects away from the body for
improved leverage
20. Control of spread of disease is an
example of which level of prevention?
(a) Primary intervention
(b) Secondary intervention
(c)
Tertiary intervention
(d) Nursing intervention
21. A client with multiple trauma is
admitted in ortho unit. The client has a leg fracture and had (a) plaster cast applied. The best position
of casted leg is:
(a)
Elevated leg for 3 hours and keep the leg at level for half an hour
(b)
Elevated leg for 6 hour put in flat position for one hour
(c) Elevated leg continued for 24-48
hours
(d) Keep the leg in a level position
22. A nurse is evaluating the status of
the client who had craniotomy 3 days ago. The nurse would suspect that the
client is developing meningitis as a complication of surgery if the client exhibits
(a) A negative kerning sign
(b) Absence of nuccal rigidity
(c) A positive bruzinski sign
(d) A Glasgow coma scale score www.prncfet.com
23. The client is diagnosed with disorder
involving the inner ear. Which of the following is the most common complaint
associated with a disorder involving this part of the ear?
(a) Pruritus
(b) Tinnitus
(c) Hearing loss
(d) Burning in the ear
24. Morphine is contraindicated in
(a) Angina
(b) Bronchial asthma
(c) Pancreatitis
(d) Myocardial infarction
25. Objectives for treating diabetic
ketoacidosis includes administration of
which of the following treatments?
(a) Glucagon
(b)
Blood product
(c) Glucocorticoids
(d) Insulin and I.V. fluid
26. A client with Myocardial infarction
suddenly becomes tachycardiac, shows signs of air hunger and begins coughing
frothy, pink tinged sputum. Which of the following would the nurse
anticipate when auscultation
the client’s breathing sounds?
(a) Stridor
(b) Crackles
(c) Scattered rhonchi
(d) Diminished breath
27. A nurse is giving discharge
instructions to a client with pulmonary sarcoidosis. The nurse concludes that
the client understands the information if the client reports which of the
following early signs of exacerbation?
(a) Fever
(b) Fatigue
(c) Wightloss
(d) Shortness of breath
28. A client has experienced pulmonary
embolism. A nurse must assess most commonly reported symptom
(a) Hot, flushed feeling
(b) Sudden chills and fever
(c) Chest pain that occurs suddenly
(d) Dysponea when deep breaths are
taken
29. A nurse is suctioning fluids from
client via a tracheostomy tube. When suctioning, the nurse must limit the
suctioning time to a maximum of
(a) 1 minute
(b) 5 seconds
(c) 10 seconds
(d) 3 seconds
30. A nurse instructs a client to use the
pursed-lip method of breathing. Purpose of this pursed-lip breathing is to
(a) Promote oxygen intake
(b) Strengthen the diaphragm
(c) Strengthen the inter costal
muscles
(d) Promote carbon dioxide elimination
31. An emergency department nurse is
assessing a client who has sustained a blunt injury to the chest wall. Which of
the signs would indicate the presence of pneumothorax in this client?
(a) A low respiratory rate
(b) Diminished breath sound
(c) The presence of a barrel chest
(d) A sucking sound at the site of injury
32. The client with hiatal hernia
chronically experiences heartburn following meals. The murse plans to teach the
client to avoid which action, because it is contraindicated with a hiatal
hernia?
(a) Lying recumbent following meal
(b) Taking in small, frequent, bland
diet
(c) Raising the head of bed on 6 inch
blocks
(d) Taking h2-receptor antagonist
medication
33. The nurse is caring for a client with
a diagnosis of chronic gastritis. The nurse monitors the client knowing that
this client is a trisk for which vitamin deficiency?
(a)
Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin E
34. The nurse is assessing a client who is
experiencing an acute episode of cholecystitis. Where should the nurse
anticipate the location of the pain?
(a)
Right lower quadrant radiating to neck
(b) Right
lower quadrant radiating
to umbilicus
c) Right upper quadrant radiating to left
scapula and shoulder
(d) Right upper quadrant radiating to
right scapula and shoulder
35. Which type of catheter is generally
used for the client with urine retention?
(a) Coude
(b) Indwelling
(c) Straight
(d) Three way
36. Negribodies found in hippocampus ae
the diagnostic signs of
(a) Rabies
(b) Measles
(c) Rubella
(d) Diphtheria
37.
What is Odynophagia?
(a) Difficulty in swallowing
(b) Pain during swallowing
(c) Unable to swallow
(d) Regurgitation
38. Signs of pulmonary consolidation are
all except
(a) Dullness
(b) Increased fremitus
(c) Egophny
(d) Cystic fibrosis
39. Which of the following is not a
investigation for dysphagia?
(a) Barium swallows
(b) Endoscopy
(c) Manometry
(d) Colonoscopy
40. Which of the following signs and
symptoms would represent an early manifestation of Laryngeal cancer?
(a) Stomatitis
(b) Air way obstruction
(c) Hoarseness
(d) Dysphasia
41. The process that transmits impulses
towards the cell body is
(a) Axon
(b) Myelin
(c) Cell body
(d) Dendrites
42. Circumstantiality is a disorder
of
(a) Mood
(b) Affect
(c) Behaviour
(d) Thinking
43. Delusion is a disorder of
(a) Thought
(b) Cognition
(c) Perception
(d) Insight
44. Withdrawal of the child into self and
into a fantasy world of his or her own creation is
(a) Mental retardation
(b) Conduct disorder
(c) Autistic disorder
(d) ADHD
45. Pavlov’s experiments is an example
of
(a) Classical conditioning
(b) Modelling
(c)
Learned helplessness
(d) Operant conditioning
46. Drug of choice for treatment of
alcohol withdrawl is
(a) Diazepam
(b) Phenelzine
(c) Amitryptiline
(d) Sodium valporate
47. Which drug is CNS stimulant?
(a) Cocaine
(b) Chlorodizepoxide
(c) Phenobarbital
(d) Meperidine
48. Social skill training becomes one of
the most widely used psychosocial interventions in the treatment of
(a) Mania
(b) Eating disorder
(c) Delirium
(d) Schizophrenia
49. Extreme salivation is the side effect
of
(a) Alprazolam
(b) Duloxetine
(c) Isocarbaxazid
(d) Clozapine
50. Disturbance of consciousness and
change in cognition that develops rapidly over a short period is
(a) Delirium
(b) Dementia
(c) Delusion
(d) Illusion
51. Nurse’s ability to be open, honest and
real in interaction with client is called
(a) Empathy
(b) Warmth
(c) Genuineness
(d) Respect
52. The junction between two neurone is
called
(a) Synapse
(b) Presynaptic neurone
(c) Synaptic cleft
(d) Dendrites
53. Delusion of nihilism and early morning insomnia are
characteristic features of
(a) Major depression
(b) Mania
(c) Schizophrenia
(d) Personality disorders potential
54. In Freudian theory, Oedipus complex is
seen in which stage of psychosexual development
(a) Anal
(b) Genital
(c) Phallic
(d) Latency
55. Purpose of therapeutic communication
is to
(a) Develop a friendly social relationship
with the patient
(b) Develop parental authoritarian
relationship with the patient
(c) Develop a helping, purposeful
relationship with the patient
(d) Develop cool business like relationship
with the patient
56. The defense mechanism most frequently
demonstrated by the chemically dependent
person is
(a) Undoing
(b) Denial
(c) Rationalization
(d) Reaction formation
57. False perception without external
stimulus is
(a) Illusion
(b) Delirium
(c) Hallucination
(d) Delusion
58. Phobia is
(a) Psychosis
(b) Anxiety
(c) Fear of animal
(d) Neurosis
59. Persistently repeats what another
person says is called
(a) Obsession
b) Echopraxia
(c) Echolalia
(d) Clang association
60. Patient with obsessive compulsive
disorder is
(a) Suspicious and hostile
(b) Flexible and adaptable to change
(c) Extremely frightened of something
(d) Rigid in thoughts, inflexible with routine
and rituals
61. Nesseria gonococcus is the common
organism for
(a) Viral conjunctivitis
(b) Allergic
(c) Bacterial
(d) Ophthalmia neonatorum
62. Bone age is less than chronological
age is the characteristic of
(a) Familial short stature
(b) Hypothyroidism
(c) Hypopituitarism
(d) Both (b) and (c)
63. Progressive enlargement of lymph node
is seen in
(a) Scurvy
(b) ITP
(c) Hemophilia
(d) Hodgekins disease
64. Wilms tumour is related to which organ
of the body
(a) Stomach
(b) Kidney
(c) Liver
(d) Heart
65. Children with Tetralogy of Fallot use
which of the following positions?
(a) Supine
(b) Lateral
(c) Prone
(d) Squatting
66. Rule of Ten is used for
(a) Cleft lip
(b) TEF
(c) Imperforate anus
(d) CHD
67. Clinical manifestation of cystic
fibrosis includes all except
(a) Corpulmonale
(b) Bronchiectasis
(c) Malabsorption
(d) Hypertension
68. The normal calorie requirement for a
5-year old child is
(a) 800 calories
(b) 1000 calories
(c) 1500 calories
(d) 2000 calorie
69. Child born to diabetic mother can
have
(a) Hypoglycaemia
(b) Hypocalcaemia
(c) Mental retardation
(d) All the above
70. Commonest cause of neonatal death in
India is
(a) Prematurity
(b) Congenital malformation
(c) Metabolic disease
(d) Birth injury
71. Human milk contains sugar per 100
ml
(a) 7 gm
(b) 5 gm
(c) 4 gm
(d) 9 gm
72. Moniliasis is caused by
(a) Fungus Candida albican
(b) Bacteria
(c) Pneumococci
(d) None of the above
73. Number of deciduous teeth
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 28
(d) 32
74. Antidote of acetaminophen poisoning
is
(a) Frusamide
(b) Ampicillin
(c) Ecetylcysteine
(d) Ethyknediominetetra acetic acid
(EDTA)
75. In a child, cessation of breathing for
20 seconds with bradycardia is (a)
Apnea
(b) Dyspnoea
(c) Seizures
(d) Cheyne stokes respiration
76. You observe that a neonate has
cyanotic feet and hands within 12 hours after birth. What action should you
take?
(a) Notify the physician
(b) Prepare to administer supplemental
O2
(c) Make sure that the neonate is warm
enough and continue observing him
(d) Apply warm compression hand and
feet
77. Which vitamin must be taken with iron
when child is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia?
(a) Folic acid
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Niacin
(d) Riboflavin
78. Head control is possible in an infant
at
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 5 months
(d) 10 months
79. The complications of chidkenpox are
all except
(a) Meningitis
(b) Enteritis
(c) Pneumonia
(d) Rey’s syndrome
80. Imbalance or in-coordination of muscle
that moves the eyeball is found in
(a) Conjunctivitis
(b) Squint strabismus
(c) Cataract
(d) Glaucoma
81. A nurse in the labour room is caring
for a client in the active stage of labour. The nurse is assessing the fetal
patterns and notes a late deceleration on the monitor strip. The appropriate nursing action is to (a) Administer oxygen via face mask
(b) Place the mother in a supine
position
(c) Increase the rate of the Oxytocin
(pitocin) intra venous infusion
(d) Document the findings and continue to
monitor the fetal patterns
82. After an amniotomy has been performed,
a nurse should first assess (a) For cervical dilation
(b) For bladder distention
(c) The maternal blood pressure
(d) The fetal heart rate pattern
83. A client in labour has been pushing
effectively for 1 hour. A nurse determines that client’s primary physiological need at this time is
to
(a) Ambulate
(b) Rest between contractions
(c) Change positions frequently
(d) Consume oral food and fluids
84. A nurse is monitoring a client in the
immediate post-partum period for signs of hemorrhage. Which of the following
signs, if noted, would be an early sign of excessive blood loss?
(a) A temperature of 100.4 degree F
(b) A blood pressure change from 130/88 to
124/80 mmHg
(c) An increase in the pulse rate from 88
to 102 beats/min
(d) An increase in the respiratory rate
from 18 to 22 beats/min
85.
A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a newborn with fetal alcohol syndrome.
The nurse should include which priority intervention in the plan of care?
(a) Allow the newborn to establish own
sleeprest pattern
(b) Maintain the newborn in a brightly
lighted area of the nursery
(c) Encourage frequent handling of the
newborn by staff and parent
(d) Monitor the newborn’s response to
feedings and weight gain pattern
86. A nurse is caring for a client who is
receiving Oxytocin (pitocin) to induce labour. The nurse discontinues the
Oxytocin infusion if which of the following is noted on assessment of the
client?
(a) Fatigue
(b) Drowsiness
(c) Uterine hyper stimulation
(d) Early deceleration of the fetal heart
rate
87. A client in preterm labour (31 weeks)
who is dilated to 4 cm has been started on magnesium sulfate and contractions
have stopped. If the client’s labour can be inhibited for the next 48 hours,
what medication does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?
(a) Betamethasone
(b) Nalbuphine (Nubain)
(c) Rh (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
(d) Dinoprostone (Cervidil vaginal
insert)
88. The opioid analgesic is administered
to a client in labour. The nurse assigned to care for the client ensures that
which medication is really available if respiratory depression occurs?
(a) Betamethasone
(b) Morphine sulfate
(c) Naloxone (Narcan)
(d) Meperidine hydrochloride
(Demerol)
89. In multipara, time period of latent
phase in partograph is about
(a) 4 hours
(b) 8 hours
(c) 12 hours breach of duty
(d) 16 hours
90. The nurse, who has received no recent
immunization, is stuck with needle that had been used on the patient. Which of
the following is this nurse at greater risk of contracting?
(a) HIV
(b) Hepatitis B
(c) Hepatitis C
(d) Scabies
91. Early amniocentesis is done in which
period of pregnancy
(a) 12-14 weeks
(b) 14-16 weeks
(c) 16-18 weeks
(d) 9-11 weeks
93. 21-year old Rashmi has arrived with
c/o cramping abdominal pain and mild vaginal bleeding. Culdocentesis shows
blood in the culdesa. This client probably has which of the following
conditions?
(a) Abruptio placentae
(b) Ecotopic pregnancy
(c) Hydatidiform mole
(d) Pelvic inflammatory disease
94. A patient 34 weeks pregnant, arrives
at the hospital with severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness and an increased
uterine tone. The patient most likely has which of the following?
(a) Abruptio placnetae
(b) Placenta previa
(c) Ectopic pregnancy
(d) Hydatidiform mole
95. Which of the following explanations
best explains why a pregnant client should lie on her left side when resting or
sleeping in the later stage of pregnancy?
(a) To facilitate digestion
(b) To facilitate bladder emptying
(c) To prevent compression of vena
cava
(d) To avoid fetal anomalies
96. A woman has just given birth at 42
weeks of gestation. When assessing the neonate, which physical finding is
expected?
(a) A sleepy, lethargic baby
(b) Lanugo covering body
(c) Desquamation of the epidermis
(d) Vernix caseosa covering the body
97. A client is receiving MgSO4 therapy
for severe pre-eclampsia. The nurse must be alert for which of the following
signs of excessive blood magnesium level?
(a) Increase in respiratory rate
(b) Sensorium stimulation
(c) Disappearance of knee-jerk reflex
(d) Appearance of cardiac
dysarrythmias
98. After reviewing the woman’s maternal
history of magnesium sulfate during labor, which condition would the nurse
anticipate as a potential problem in the neonate?
(a) Hypoglycemia
(b) Jitteriness
(c) Respiratory depression
(d) Tachycardia
99. 27-year old Meera states that after
the delivery she has noticed some of episodes of sadness and tearfulness. Which
of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?
(a) Maternity blues
(b) Postpartum depression
(c) Postpartum mania
(d) Postpartum psychosis
100. Which one of the following is the
ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart disease?
(a) IUCD
(b) Depo-Provera
(c) E-pills
(d) Oral contraceptive pills
101. An important landmark of the pelvis
that determines the distance of the descent of head is known as
(a) Linea terminals
(b) Sacurm
(c) Ischial spines
(d) Ischial tuberosities
102. Measles vaccine is kept in
refrigerator in
(a) Chilled tray
b) Freezer
(c) Tray below freezer
(d) Shelves in the door
103. Disinfectant used for water
purification is
(a) 5 gm bleaching powder for 100 litre of
water
(b) 10 gm chlorine for one litre of
water
(c) 2% ethanol solution for one litre of
water
(d) 5 mg potassium permanganate
104. Fertility rate can be reduced by
(a) Spacing of pregnancy
(b) Early marriage
(c) Female literacy
(d) Compulsory sterilization
105. The father of Germ theory of disease
was
(a) Louis Pasteur
(b) Newton
(c) Virginia Apgav
(d) Albert Einstein
106. All are true indicators of health for
all except
(a) Family size
(b) Annual growth rate 1 : 2
(c) Life expectancy 64 years
(d) IMR < 60
107. IUCD acts
(a) Killing spermatozoa
(b) Aseptic inflammation of
endometrium
(c) Increase cervical mucus
(d) Preventing the fertilization of
ova
108. Under the National Population Policy,
family size should be brought down to
(a) 1
b) 2.3
(c) 3.2
(d) 4.2
109. Dengue fever is also called as
(a) Enteric fever
(b) Q fever
(c) Break bone fever
(d) Brain fever
110. Which of the following is not a minor
ailment?
(a) Injuries fall and burn
(b) Chest pain in a heart patient
(c) Diarrhoea
(d) Heart stroke and fainting
111. Consent from guardian for MTP is
required if
(a) Female is unmarried
(b) Female is below 33 years of age
(c) Female is divorced
(d) Female is below 17 years of age
112. Which is the most suitable method for
disposal of night soil in the rural areas?
(a) Biogas plant
(b) Composting
(c) Dumping
(d) Manure pit
113. Orthotolidine test is used to
determine
(a) Nitrate in water
(b) Potassium in water
(c) Ammonia in water
(d) Free combined chlorine in water
114. Vector borne diseases are transmitted
by
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Animals
(d) Insects
115. As per Birth and Death Registration
Act, the birth should be registered within
(a) 5 days (b) 7 days (c) 14 days
(d) 21 days
116. Megablastic anemia is caused due to deficiency of
(a) B12
(b) B2
(c) B6
(d) B1
117. Recommended site for administer of
DPT in infant is
(a) Gluteal
(b) Deltoid
(c) Linear aspect of thigh
(d) Forearm
118. Floating tip of the iceberg
represents
(a) Clinical cases
(b) Apparent cases
(c) Latent cases
(d) Un-diagnosed cases
119. False about leprosy eradication
programme is
(a) Early detection of cases
(b) Disability imitation
(c) Long term multi drug therapy
(d) Health education
120. Case finding in RNTCP is based
on
(a) Sputum culture
(b) Sputum microscopy
(c) X-ray chest
(d) Mantoux test/PCR
121. PAP smear is the example of
(a) Primordial prevention
(b) Primary prevention
(c) Secondary prevention
(d) tertiary prevention
122. The most common degenerate joint
disease in the elderly, often caused by wear and tear is
(a) Rheumatoid arthritis
(b) Osteoarthritis
(c) Gouty arthritis
(d) Ankylosing spondylitis
123. Haemopoiesis is a process of the
production of
(a) Blood plasma
(b) Erythrocytes
(c) Bone marrow
(d) Haemoglobin
124. Which of the following is not
required for clot formation?
(a) Vitamin K
(b) Calcium
(c) Plasmin
(d) Blood cell
125. The wave of contraction is under the control
of
(a) Parasympathetic nerve
(b) Mandibular nerve
(c) Phrenic nerve
(d) Auditory nerve www.prncfet.com
126. Which of the following is not the
function o the liver?
(a) Carbohydrate, lipid
and protein metabolism
(b) Excretion of bilirubin
(c) Nucleic acid metabolism
(d) Synthesis of bile salts and activation
of Vitamin D
127. Which part of brain is associated
with control of breathing?
(a) Midbrain
(b) Pons
(c) Medulla oblongata
(d) Both (b) and (c)
128. Which part of brain regulates posture
and balance?
(a) Midbrain
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Diencephalon
(d) Cerebrum
129. Hormones are
(a) Enzymes
(b) Proenzymes
(c) Inorganic chemicals
(d) Organic chemicals
130. Myxedema is caused by the deficiency of
a hormone secreted by
(a) Parathyroid
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Thyroid
(d) Pineal body
131. Ciliary body in the eyeball is the
extension of the
(a) Sclera
(b) Choroid
(c) Retina
(d) Cornea
132. Which of the following dietary
factors increases absorption of calcium?
(a) Presence of fatty acids
(b) Protein rich diet
(c) Phytic acid or excess of fibres
(d) Presence of oxalates (cabbage,
spinach, etc.)
133. Which of the following plays a role
in neuromuscular excitability and
nerve transmission?
(a) Na+
(b) K+
(c) Ca++
(d) All the above
134. Cooking below boiling point (about
85oC) as in case of meat and fish to prevent hardening of fibres is called
(a) Stewing
(b) Simmering
(c) Roasting
(d) Baking
135. Which of the following are not
affected or changed much by heat?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Protein
(c) Fats
(d) Vitamins
136. Which of the following should be
boiled thoroughly?
(a) Cereals
(b) Pulses
(c) Green leafy vegetables
(d) Fish
137. Which of the following drugs is used
to control the progress of AIDS?
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Zidovudine
(c) Streptomycin
(d) Dexona
138. Effect of adrenaline is
(a) Increased heart rate
(b) Vasoconstriction
(c) Vasodilatation
(d) Both (a) and (b)
139. Which of the following medicine is
useful in the treatment of organo-phosphorous poisoning?
(a) Neostimine
(b) Atropine
(c) Magnesium sulphate
(d) D-penicillamine
140.
Medicine given during acute anaphylactic reaction is
(a) Atropine
(b) Aminophylline
(c) Deriphylline
(d) Adrenaline
141. Anti-tubercular drug which does not
cross blood brain barrier is
(a) Streptomycin
(b) INH
(c) Rifampicin
(d) Pyrazinamide
142. Which one of the following is not a
water-borne or food-borne virus?
(a) Polio virus
(b) Hepatitis A
(c) Norwalk-like virus
(d) Ebola virusm
143. Which of the following is the part of
third line defense (specific resistance)?
(a) Inflammation
(b) Antibodies
(c) Fever
(d) Antimicrobial substance
144. Which one of the following is a
toxoid vaccine?
(a) Typhoid
(b) Influenza
(c) Diphtheria
(d) Hepatitis B
145. The trace elements refers to
(a) The elements nitrogen, phosphorus, and
sulfur
(b) Vitamins
(c) Small mineral requirements
(d) Toxic substance
146. Amoebic dysentery is caused by
(a) Amoeba proteus
(b) Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Balantinium coli
(d) Giardia lamblia
147. Planning commission is a
(a) Statutory body
(b) Executive body
(c) Autonomous body
(d) None of the these
148. Right of information is a
(a) Fundamental right
(b) Legal right
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
149. The satellite freight city is being
developed near which of the following cities?
(a)
New Delhi.
(b)
Orissa
(c)
Guragon
(d)
Kolkata
150. Most highly intelligent mammals are
(a)
Whales
(b)
Dolphins
(c)
Elephants
(d) Kangaroo
Answers
1.D
2.D 3.D 4.D 5.D
46.A 47.A 48.D 49.D 50.A
46.A 47.A 48.D 49.D 50.A
146.A 147.B 148.C 149.C 150.B
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6.D 7.D 8.C 9.D 10.B
11.D 12.B 13.C 14.B 15.A
16.B 17.A 18.C 19.B 20.C
21.C 22.C 23.B 24.B 25.D
26.B 27.D 28.C 29.C 30.D
31.B 32.A 33.B 34.D 35.B
36.A 37.B 38.D 39.D 40.C
41.D 42.D 43.A 44.C 45.A
1.D
2.D 3.D 4.D 5.D
6.D 7.D 8.C 9.D 10.B
11.D 12.B 13.C 14.B 15.A
16.B 17.A 18.C 19.B 20.C
21.C 22.C 23.B 24.B 25.D
26.B 27.D 28.C 29.C 30.D
31.B 32.A 33.B 34.D 35.B
36.A 37.B 38.D 39.D 40.C
41.D 42.D 43.A 44.C 45.A
121.B 122.B 123.C 124.A 125.C
126.D 127.B 128.D 129.C 130.B
131.B 132.D 133.B 134.C 135.B
136.B 137.D 138.A 139.D 140.A
141.D 142.B 143.C 144.C 145.B
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