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Q. No. 1 The vaginal pH in reproductive period is
Option A 3 to 4
Option B 4 to 5
Option C 5 to 6
Option D 6 to 7
Correct Option B
Q. No. 2 Life span of RBC is
Option A 90 days
Option B 100 days
Option C 110 days
Option D 120 days
Correct Option D
Q. No. 3 The strongest and largest bone of the face is
Option A Maxilla
Option B Frontal bone
Option C Mandible
Option D Occipital bone
Correct Option C
Q. No. 4 Which of this nerves passes through the
foramen magnum
Option A Spinal nerve
Option B Vagus
Option C Accessory
Option D Hypoglosal
Correct Option C
Q. No. 5 The epithelial tissue which lines the urinary
bladder is
Option A Columnar
Option B Stratified
Option C Squamous
Option D Transitional
Correct Option D
Q. No. 6 Which hormone is essential for milk
production
Option A Thyroid
Option B ADH
Option C Oxytocin
Option D Prolactin
Correct Option D
Q. No. 7 In following which is not a function of the
insulin
Option A Decreasing glycogenolysis
Option B Gluconeogenesis
Option C Lypogenesis
Option D Glycogenesis
Correct Option B
Q. No. 8 Sperms are produced by
Option A Prostate
Option B Seminiferous tubules
Option C Epididymis
Option D Penis
Correct Option B
Q. No. 9 Which structure of eye is helpful in changing
the thickness of lens?
Option A Sclera
Option B Cornea
Option C Ciliary Body
Option D Iris
Correct Option C
Q. No. 10 The second heart sound 'dup' is heard due to
Option A Opening of the aortic and pulmonary valves
Option B Closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves
Option C Opening of the atrioventricular valves
Option D Closure of the atrioventricular valves
Correct Option B
Q. No. 11 The Organism responsible for Filaria
Option A Entamoeba histolytica
Option B Anopheles mosquito
Option C Wucheriria Bancrofti
Option D Taeniasaginata
Correct Option C
Q. No. 12 The polio virus enters in the body by
Option A Ingestion
Option B Sexual contact
Option C Inocculation
Option D All of the above
Correct Option A
Q. No. 13 Complete destruction of all microorganisms
is effected by the use of
Option A Antiseptic
Option B Sterilant
Option C Disinfectant
Option D Detergent
Correct Option C
Q. No. 14 In following which is a gram positive
bacilli
Option A Corynebacterium
Option B Proteus
Option C Pseudomonas
Option D E. coli
Correct Option A
Q. No. 15 Endoscope is sterilized by
Option A Autoclaving
Option B U. V. Rays
Option C 2% phenol
Option D 2% gluteraldehyde
Correct Option D
Q. No. 16 Smith's test is used to detect
Option A Bile pigment
Option B Acetone
Option C Bile salt
Option D Albumin
Correct Option A
Q. No. 17 The term gavage indicates
Option A Administration of a liquid feeding into the
stomach
Option B Visual examination of the stomach
Option C Irrigation of the stomach with a solution
Option D A surgical opening through the abdomen to the
stomach
Correct Option A
Q. No. 18 Prolong suctioning of the tracheostomy may
cause
Option A Myocarditis and endocarditis
Option B Hypoxia and cardiac arrest
Option C Nausea and vomiting
Option D Anorexia
Correct Option B
Q. No. 19 In hospital, non infectious wastes should be
discarded in
Option A Red colored bag
Option B Blue colored bag
Option C Black colored bag
Option D Yellow colored bag
Correct Option C
Q. No. 20 Low level of oxygen in the blood is known as
Option A Cyanosis
Option B Anoxemia
Option C Hypoxia
Option D Hypoxemia
Correct Option D
Q. No. 21 Hyperpyrexia is
Option A 1070 F
Option B 1050 F
Option C 1030 F
Option D 1010 F
Correct Option B
Q. No. 22 Infusion of 500 ml normal saline over 6
hours requires how many drops per minute when the drop factor is 15 drops per
minute?
Option A 23 drops/min
Option B 21 drops/min
Option C 17 drops/min
Option D 15 drops/min
Correct Option B
Q. No. 23 Color of nitrous oxide cylinder is
Option A Red
Option B French Blue
Option C Black with white shoulders
Option D Black
Correct Option B
Q. No. 24 A Foleys catheter operates by the principal
of
Option A Osmosis
Option B Diffusion
Option C Gravity
Option D None of this
Correct Option C
Q. No. 25 Ringer lactate is contraindicated in
Option A Diarrhoea
Option B Lactic acidosis
Option C Burns
Option D Hypovolemia
Correct Option B
Q. No. 26 Gradual decrease of the body's temperature
is known as
Option A Livor mortis
Option B Algor mortis
Option C Rigor mortis
Option D None of the above
Correct Option B
Q. No. 27 Atropine sulphate act as a
Option A Antihypertensive agent
Option B Anticonvulsant drug
Option C Miotic drug
Option D Midriatic drug
Correct Option D
Q. No. 28 During haemodialysis which of the following
drug is used to prevent blood clotting?
Option A Protamin
Option B Heparin
Option C Warfarin
Option D Aspirin
Correct Option B
Q. No. 29 Which of the following is not excreted in
breast milk?
Option A Zinc
Option B Phosphorus
Option C Iron
Option D Calcium
Correct Option C
Q. No. 30 Which prostaglandin helps in cervical
ripening?
Option A PGE1
Option B PGE2
Option C PGF2
Option D PGI2
Correct Option B
Q. No. 31 The condition in which the bleeding is so
irregular and excessive that the menses cannot be identified is known as
Option A Menorrhagia
Option B Metrorrhagia
Option C Polymenorrhoea
Option D Menometrorrhagia
Correct Option D
Q. No. 32 Robert sign is found in
Option A Placenta previa
Option B Abruptio placenta
Option C IUFD
Option D Hydatidiform mole
Correct Option C
Q. No. 33 Internal rotation of the fetal head occurs
during labor at
Option A Inlet
Option B Cavity
Option C Outlet
Option D Midpelvis
Correct Option C
Q. No. 34 Fertilization of two ova released in
different menstrual cycle is known as
Option A Superfetation
Option B Superfecundation
Option C Fetus papyraceous
Option D None of the above
Correct Option A
Q. No. 35 During face presentation attitude of the
head will be
Option A Partial extension
Option B Deflexion
Option C Complete extension
Option D Flexion
Correct Option C
Q. No. 36 What is the full form of HELP syndrome?
Option A Haemoglobinuria, elevated leucocytes and low
platelet level
Option B Haemolysis, elevated lymphocytes and low
platelet level
Option C Haemolysis, elevated lipase enzyme and low
platelet level
Option D Haemolysis, elevated liver enzyme and low
platelet level
Correct Option D
Q. No. 37 What is the antidote of magnesium sulphate?
Option A Protamin sulphate
Option B Calcium gluconate
Option C Calcium carbonate
Option D Sodium bicarbonate
Correct Option B
Q. No. 38 A suspected pregnancy is confirmed by the
presence of HCG in urine or serum after how many days of missed period?
Option A At least 8 days
Option B At least 12 days
Option C At least 14 days
Option D At least 21 days
Correct Option A
Q. No. 39 During delivery, on vaginal examination,
palpation of fetal blood vessels lies in front of the fetal presenting part
through intact membrane is known as
Option A Cord prolapsed
Option B Cord presentation
Option C Placenta previa
Option D Vasa previa
Correct Option D
Q. No. 40 A nurse is caring for a client who has
spontaneous abortion. For what complication the nurse should assess
Option A Haemorrhage
Option B Dehydration
Option C Subinvolution
Option D Hypertension
Correct Option A
Q. No. 41 The condition in which leading edge of the
uterine prolapse extends from 1 cm above to 1 cm below the hymenal ring is
staged as
Option A Stage I
Option B Stage II
Option C Stage III
Option D Stage IV
Correct Option B
Q. No. 42 For delivery of the aftercoming head in
breech presentation, specially designed forceps is used
Option A Das's forceps
Option B Piper forceps
Option C Kielland's forceps
Option D Wrigley's forceps
Correct Option B
Q. No. 43 The level of immunity that is present in a
population against an infectious agent is known as
Option A Innate immunity
Option B Acquired immunity
Option C Passive immunity
Option D Herd immunity
Correct Option D
Q. No. 44 The rashes of the chicken pox first appear
on
Option A Legs
Option B Arm
Option C Chest
Option D Trunk
Correct Option D
Q. No. 45 The full form of AEFI
Option A Adverse effect following injection
Option B Adverse events following Immunization
Option C Adverse effects following immunization
Option D Adverse events following injection
Correct Option B
Q. No. 46 Commonest cause of infant mortality rate in
India is
Option A Respiratory infection
Option B Congenital malformation
Option C Dehydration
Option D Prematurity
Correct Option D
Q. No. 47 Polio is the primary infection of
Option A Urinary system
Option B Respiratory system
Option C Gastrointestinal system
Option D Central nervous system
Correct Option C
Q. No. 48 Dose of DMPA is
Option A 200 mg after every two months
Option B 200mg monthly
Option C 150 mg after every three months
Option D 100 mg for two weeks
Correct Option C
Q. No. 49 The
course for Community Health Officer is
Option A DCHN
Option B DCHNEA
Option C BPHN
Option D BPCCHN
Correct Option D
Q. No. 50 Vaccine against rota virus is given in which
route
Option A Oral
Option B Intra-dermal
Option C Subcutaneous
Option D Intramuscular
Correct Option A
Q. No. 51 Gold-standard in confirming the diagnosis of
malaria is
Option A Polymerase chain reaction
Option B Peripheral smear examination
Option C Immunochromatographic test
Option D Radioimmunoessay
Correct Option B
Q. No. 52 The constant presence of disease within a
geographic area is known as
Option A Epidemic
Option B Sporadic
Option C Endemic
Option D Pandemic
Correct Option C
Q. No. 53 According to CRS registration of birth
within
Option A 7 days
Option B 10 days
Option C 14 days
Option D 21 days
Correct Option D
Q. No. 54 The term refers to all current cases
existing at a point/period of time in a given population is known as
Option A Incidence
Option B Prevalence
Option C Surveillance
Option D None of the above
Correct Option B
Q. No 55 Presbyopia is treated by
Option A Convex lens
Option B Concave lens
Option C Both convex and concave lens
Option D Refractive surgery
Correct Option A
Q. No. 56 Which of the following conditions is an
early symptom commonly seen in myasthenia gravis ?
Option A Respiratory distress
Option B Ptosis
Option C Parasthesia of lower extremities
Option D Dysphagia
Correct Option B
Q. No. 57 The correct position to palpate the epical
pulse is at the
Option A Left midclavicular line at the level of
second intercostal space
Option B Left midclavicular line at the level of fifth
intercostal space
Option C Left axillary line at the level of fifth
intercostal space
Option D Left midclavicular line at the level of
seventh intercostals space
Correct Option B
Q. No. 58 The most common cause of myocardial
infarction is
Option A Aneurysm of the coronary artery
Option B Occlusion of coronary artery by an embolus
Option C Thrombus formation in a coronary artery
Option D Vasospasm of coronary artery
Correct Option C
Q. No. 59 Which of the following arterial blood gas
values is consistent with metabolic acidosis
Option A pH- 7.35
Option B PaCO2 - 46 mmHg
Option C HCO3 -15Eq/L
Option D PaO2-95 mm Hg
Correct Option C
Q. No. 60 A client arrives from surgery to the post
anaesthesia care unit. The nurse should complete which of the following
respiratory assessment first ?
Option A Airway flow
Option B Breath sound
Option C Respiratory rate
Option D Oxygen saturation
Correct Option A
Q. No. 61 Which of the following symptoms is not
characteristics manifestation of anorexia nervosa ?
Option A Hypotension
Option B Menorrhagia
Option C Pallor
Option D Constipation
Correct Option B
Q. No. 62 Excessive secretion of vasopressin is
responsible for which of the following disorder?
Option A Diabetes Insipidus
Option B Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic
hormone
Option C Cushing's syndrome
Option D Addisonian's crisis
Correct Option B
Q. No. 63 According to American Cancer Society's
guidelines all sexually active women should undergo Pap test how frequently
Option A Every 5 years
Option B Every 3 years
Option C Every 2 years
Option D Every year till 3 consecutive negative
results
Correct Option D
Q. No. 64 Allergic reactions caused by environmental
allergens is known as
Option A Anaphylactic reactions
Option B Atopic reactions
Option C Cytotoxic reactions
Option D Immune complex reactions
Correct Option B
Q. No. 65 Which of the following drugs should be
withheld before haemodialysis
Option A Insulin
Option B Calcium preparations
Option C Digoxin
Option D Antihypertensive
Correct Option C
Q. No. 66 In caring pancreatitis patient, which of the
following diet the nurse should plan?
Option A High protein, high carbohydrate, low fat diet
Option B High carbohydrate, low fat with fruits and
vegetables
Option C High carbohydrate, high protein, low fat and
low residue diet
Option D Small and frequent bland diet
Correct Option C
Q. No. 67 During resuscitation in an infant, ratio of
chest compression and ventilation breath should be
Option A 1:5
Option B 5:1
Option C 1:3
Option D 3:1
Correct Option D
Q. No. 68 Hormone responsible for skeletal maturation
of fetus
Option A Progesterone
Option B Thyroxin
Option C Estrogen
Option D Testosterone
Correct Option B
Q. No. 69 Which of the following condition is not
under the cyanotic heart disease
Option A Tetralogy of fallot
Option B Transposition of great arteries
Option C Patent ductus arteriosus
Option D Truncus arteriosus
Correct Option C
Q. No. 70 A child is diagnosed with bacterial
conjunctivitis, a nurse educate the mother to do all, except
Option A Give eye drop as prescribed
Option B Share towel and wash cloths
Option C Clean eyes as prescribed
Option D Wash hands frequently
Correct Option B
Q. No. 71 What would you do if the VVM of OPV vaccine
is unusable.
Option A Give vaccine to the child
Option B Report to the CMOH
Option C Do not give the vaccine to the child
Option D Vaccine vial kept in the sunlight
Correct Option C
Q. No. 72 The most appropriate method for assessing
pain in a toddler is
Option A Assess for changes in vital signs
Option B Use a numeric pain scale
Option C Observe the child for restlessness
Option D Ask the child about pain
Correct Option C
Q. No. 73 Prophylactic administration of vitamin A in
a child is
Option A Health promotion
Option B Treatment
Option C Specific protection
Option D Rehabilitation
Correct Option C
Q. No. 74 When the neck of the child is flexed
passively, the flexion of the knee occurs this represents
Option A Kerning's sign
Option B Brudzinski sign
Option C Stallworthy's sign
Option D Lamba sign
Correct Option B
Q. No. 75 A child has fluid volume deficit. The nurse
performs an assessment and determines that the child is improving and the
deficit is resolving if
Option A Specific gravity of urine is 1.030
Option B The child has no tears
Option C Capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds
Option D Urine output is less than 1ml/kg/hour
Correct Option C
Q. No. 76 Klumpke's palsy is due to the involvement of
Option A 5th and 6th cervical nerve
Option B 7th and 8th cervical nerve
Option C 5thand 6th thorasic nerve
Option D 7th and 8th thorasic nerve
Correct Option B
Q. No. 77 Psychological mechanism that reduces anxiety
arising from unacceptable or potentially harmful stimuli. The nurse determines
that this is use of
Option A Affective reaction
Option B Withdrawal pattern
Option C Defense mechanism
Option D Ritualistic behavior
Correct Option C
Q. No. 78 Delirium is a disorder of
Option A Consciousness
Option B Perception
Option C Memory
Option D Thought
Correct Option A
Q. No. 79 A child with severe mental retardation has
IQ level
Option A More than 70
Option B 35-70
Option C 20-35
Option D Less than 20
Correct Option C
Q. No. 80 A person who deliberately pretends an
illness is usually thought to be
Option A Using conversion defenses
Option B Out of concept with reality
Option C Malingering
Option D Neurotic
Correct Option A
Q. No. 81 The therapeutic effective of serum lithium
concentration level is monitored
Option A Within 12 hours
Option B 12-24 hours
Option C 24-48 hours
Option D 48 - 72 hours
Correct Option B
Q. No. 82 In following which is not an example of
opoid
Option A Naloxane
Option B Pethidine
Option C Heroine
Option D Morphine
Correct Option A
Q. No. 83 Inability to verbally describe one's
emotionally feelings
Option A Agitation
Option B Akinesia
Option C Alexithymia
Option D Anhedonia
Correct Option C
Q. No. 84 In following which is not a withdrawal
symptom of alcohol
Option A Delirium tremens
Option B Rum fits
Option C Cirrhosis of liver
Option D Alcoholic hallucination
Correct Option C
Q. No. 85 A patient has adequate speech amount but
content provides little information, the patient is suffering from
Option A Poverty of ideation
Option B Mutism
Option C Poverty of speech
Option D Echolalia
Correct Option A
Q. No. 86 In following which is not included in the
4A's of schizophrenia
Option A Autism
Option B Association disturbances
Option C Affect disturbances
Option D Anxiety
Correct Option D
Q. No. 87 The heel-to-shin test assess
Option A Muscle strength of lower extremities
Option B Muscle coordination of lower extremities
Option C Involuntary movement of lower extremities
Option D All of the above
Correct Option B
Q. No. 88 A patient is being treated with tab digoxin
for supra ventricular tachycardia. What sign and symptoms are indicative of
digoxin toxicity
Option A Convulsions
Option B Yellow vision
Option C Vertigo
Option D Muscle cramping
Correct Option B
Q. No. 89 When a patient is on mechanical ventilation
which of the following equipment should be kept ready at bedside?
Option A Water-seal chest drainage set up
Option B Manual resuscitation bag
Option C Oxygen analyzer
Option D Tracheostomy cleaning kit
Correct Option B
Q. No. 90 A patient's gastric analysis test reveals
excess secretion of gastric acid. The nurse would suspect which of the
following diagnosis
Option A Gastric ulcer
Option B Duodenal ulcer
Option C Gastric cancer
Option D Chronic atrophic gastritis
Correct Option B
Q. No. 91 The most accurate laboratory test for renal
function is
Option A Blood urea nitrogen
Option B Urinalysis
Option C Creatine clearence
Option D Serum creatinine
Correct Option C
Q. No. 92 The symptoms of hyperprolactinemia are all
of the following except
Option A Galactorrhea
Option B Failure of lactation
Option C Amenorrhea
Option D Decreased libido
Correct Option B
Q. No. 93 Diagnosis of Diabetes Insipidus is confirmed
by
Option A Water deprivation test
Option B Capillary blood glucose test
Option C Urine test for specific gravity
Option D Urine test for glucose
Correct Option A
Q. No. 94 Which of the following childhood infections
may be a cause of infertility in the male
Option A Mumps
Option B Measles
Option C Pertusis
Option D Diptheria
Correct Option A
Q. No. 95 Which of the following is not considered as
carcinogen?
Option A Tobacco
Option B Ultraviolet Rays
Option C Viruses
Option D Gens
Correct Option D
Q. No. 96 The common side effect of chemotherapy
Option A Anorexia
Option B Nausea and vomiting
Option C Stomatitis
Option D Constipation
Correct Option B
Q. No. 97 Which of the following antibodies are
produced in an allergic disorders?
Option A IgA
Option B IgD
Option C IgM
Option D IgE
Correct Option D
Q. No. 98Atoconium is found in
Option A Perilymph
Option B Hemolymph
Option C Sinovial fluid
Option D Otolith membrane
Correct Option B
Q. No. 99 Circulation of blood was discovered by
Option A Darwin
Option B Aristotle
Option C Harvey
Option D Pasteur
Correct Option C
Q. No. 100 In following which is not an essential
amino acids
Option A Methionine
Option B Arginine
Option C Lysine
Option D Leucine
Correct Option B
Q. No. 101 The vitamin that is helpful in blood
clotting
Option A Vitamin K
Option B Vitamin A
Option C Vitamin D
Option D Vitamin C
Correct Option A
Q. No. 102 One of the following that does not have
protective function
Option A Milk
Option B Fish
Option C Fruits
Option D Green leafy vegetables
Correct Option B
Q. No. 103 The disease which is characterized by 3D's
Option A Meningitis
Option B Pallegra
Option C Beri beri
Option D Kwashiorkor
Correct Option B
Q. No. 104 Qualities or characteristics that are
measured in natural settings is
Option A Dependent variables
Option B Independent variables
Option C Research variables
Option D Demographic variables
Correct Option C
Q. No. 105 The degree of consistency with which an
instrument measures the attribute it is designed to measure
Option A Reliability
Option B Validity
Option C Probalbility
Option D All of the above
Correct Option A
Q. No. 106 Rejection of true null hypothesis is
Option A Type I error
Option B Type II error
Option C Sampling error
Option D None of the above
Correct Option A
Q. No. 107 A realistic expectations that are believe
to be true
Option A Hypothesis
Option B Assumptions
Option C Theory
Option D Generalization
Correct Option B
Q. No. 108 In following which is not under the
non-probability sampling technique
Option A Convenient sampling
Option B Censecutive sampling
Option C Cluster sampling
Option D Quota sampling
Correct Option C
Q. No. 109 Restriction in the study that may decrease
the credibility the research findings
Option A Delimitations
Option B Limitations
Option C Hypothesis
Option D Assumptions
Correct Option B
Q. No. 110 Acquisition of skills is known as
Option A Cognitive learning
Option B Affective learning
Option C Learning by conditioned reflex
Option D Psychomotor learning
Correct Option D
Q. No. 111 Who classified personality as extrovert and
introvert?
Option A Geordon Allport
Option B Karl G. Jung
Option C Watson
Option D Bruner
Correct Option B
Q. No. 112 Thinking is also known as
Option A Memory
Option B Motivation
Option C Cognition
Option D Attention
Correct Option C
Q. No. 113 What do you mean by legal responsibilities
in nursing practice?
Option A The way in which you are obliged to obey the
law in professional activities
Option B The responsibilities of a nurse towards his
patient society and profession
Option C The responsibilities of a patient towards his
nurse and treating doctor
Option D The responsibility of a nurse to perform
various nursing procedure
Correct Option A
Q. No. 114 The pre requisite for good lesson planning
include except
Option A Teacher must have mastery over his subject
Option B Student's educational background should be
kept in mind
Option C Their should be variety and novelty in type
of presentation
Option D Participation of learners should be avoided
Correct Option D
Q. No. 115 Examples of non projected teaching aids are
except
Option A Models
Option B Specimen
Option C Flashcard
Option D Laptop
Correct Option D
Q. No. 116 Brief account of any incident that has been
occurred, termed as
Option A Audit
Option B Anecdotal
Option C Checklist
Option D Evaluation
Correct Option B
Q. No. 117 In communication process which is also
known as Decoder
Option A Channel
Option B Message
Option C Sender
Option D Receiver
Correct Option D
Q. No. 118 The teaching which is presented in a
dramatical way known as
Option A Demonstration
Option B Role play
Option C Symposium
Option D Lecture
Correct Option B
Q. No. 119 Society emerges out of
Option A Community's existence
Option B Men's existence
Option C Problem's existence
Option D Relationship
Correct Option B
Q. No. 120 Marriage is considered to be necessary
because
Option A This is the only way to acquire to paternal
property
Option B This is the only way of sexual gratification
Option C This provides societal sanction
Option D It is regularized and provides socially
sanctioned sex gratification
Correct Option D
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