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Q. No. 1 Heat
regulating centre is located in:
Option 1 Thalamus
Option 2
Hypothalamus
Option 3 Medulla
oblongata
Option 4 Cerebrum
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 2 The
smallest bone of human body is:
Option 1 Stapes
Option 2
Phallanges
Option 3
Metacarpals
Option 4
Xiphisternum
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 3 The
function of fallopian tube is:
Option 1 Secretion
of oestrogen and progesterone
Option 2 Passage
way for foetus
Option 3
Occurrence of fertilization
Option 4
Developing foetus
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 4 Normal
respiration of healthy person is:
Option 1. 5-10/min
Option 2.
10-15/min
Option 3.
15-20/min
Option 4.
20-30/min
Correct
Option3
Q. No. 5 Kidney is
situated:
Option 1 In
abdominal cavity
Option 2 In pelvic
cavity
Option 3 In
thoracic cavity
Option 4In dorsal
cavity
Correct
Option1
Q. No. 6 Total
number of chambers in human heart is:
Option 1. 4
Option 2. 1
Option 3. 2
Option 4. 3
Correct
Option1
Q. No. 7 The only
artery which supplies deoxygenated blood:
Option 1Pulmonary
artery
Option 2Hepatic
artery
Option 3Gastric
artery
Option 4Renal
artery
Correct
Option1
Q. No. 8 To
diagnosis meningitis which type of sample is collected:
Option 1Urine
Option 2CSF
Option
3Bone-marrow
Correct
Option2
Q. No. 9
Thermophilic bacteria grow at following minimum temperature:
Option 1. 20 ºC
Option 2. 35 ºC
Option 3. 55 ºC
Option 4. 85 ºC
Correct
Option3
Q. No. 10 Life
cycle of malarial parasite was first described by:
Option 1Ronald
Ross
Option 2Robert
Koch
Option 3Louis
Pasterur
Option 4Banting
and Best
Correct
Option1
Q. No. 11 HIV
virus belongs to which of the following groups?
Option 1Flavivirus
Option 2Retrovirus
Option
3Rhabdovirus
Option
4Hepadnavirus
Correct
Option2
Q. No. 12 In
following which is a vector borne disease:
Option 1Diptheria
Option 2Dengue
Option 3Tetanus
Option 4Measles
Correct
Option2
Q. 13 Which of the
following is a antidote for a patient with overdose of heparin:
Option 1Protamine
Sulphate
Option 2Vitamin-K
Option 3Atropine
Sulphate
Option
4Physostigmine
Correct
Option1
Q. No.
14Paracetamol medicine/drug is :
Option
1Antipyretic
Option
2Antitussive
Option
3Antiasthemetic Hindi Option 3Antiasthemetic
Option 4Antiemetic
Correct
Option1
Q. No. 15 Morphine
is contraindicated in:
Option 1Angina
Option 2Bronchial
asthma
Option
3Pancreatitis
Option 4M.I.
Correct
Option2
Q. No. 16
Teaspoonful medicine is equal to:
Option 1. 2 ml
Option 2. 3 ml
Option 3 5 ml
Option 4 10 ml
Correct
Option3
Q. No. 17 Which of
the following medicines is useful for reducing raised intracranial pressure:
Option 1 I.V.
Mannitol
Option 2 I.V.
Phenytoin
Option 3 I.V.
Diazeopam
Option 4 I.V.
Nitroglycerine
Correct
Option1
Q. No. 18
Analgesics are given:
Option 1To relieve
pain
Option 2Go give
rest
Option 3To induce
sleep
Option 4To destroy
pathogenic microorganisms
Correct
Option1
Q. No. 19 Guillian
Barre syndrome is a disease of which of the following:
Option 1Brain
Option 2Spinal
cord
Option 3Peripheral
nerve
Option 4 All of
the above
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 20 Which of
the following is not a parameter for "Glasgow coma scale"
Option 1 Eye
opening
Option 2 Pupillary
response
Option 3 Verbal
response
Option 4 Motor
response
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 21"Rice
Water Stool" is a typical finding in cases of :
Option 1 Cholera
Option 2 Typhoid
Option 3
Ulcerative colitis
Option 4
Amoebiasis
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 22Full form
of CPR is :
Option 1 Cardio
Pulmonary Resuscitation
Option 2
Cardio-Pulmonary Relapse
Option 3 Cradio
Pulmonary Restriction
Option 4 Chronic
Pulmonary Replace
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 23What
concentration of NaCl in intravenous fluid is termed "Isotonic":
Option 1 0.25%
Option 2 0.45%
Option 3 0.75%
Option 4 0.90%
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 24 A major
priority of nursing care of child suspected of having meningitis is to
Option 1 Check the
temperature and give the cold sponging
Option 2 Isolate
the child immediately
Option 3
Administer the antibiotic as soon as it is ordered
Option 4 Restrain the
child to prevent accidents
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 25 The
child's apical pulse is always checked before administering digoxin, the drug
is not given if the pulse rate is :
Option 1 Below 90
to 110 beats/minute
Option 2 Above 90
to 110 beats/minute
Option 3 Less than
60 beats/minute
Option 4 More than
150 beats/minute
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 26 During
the oedematous phase of nephrotic syndrome an important nursing, intervention
is to:
Option 1 Provide
meticulous skin care
Option 2 Encourage
fluid intake
Option 3 Encourage
moderate activity
Option 4 Weight
the child every alternate day
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 27 Initial
nursing assessment of an infant suffering with acute diarrhea and dehydration
reveals:
Option 1 Skin
turgor
Option 2 Low
hematocrit
Option 3 Bulging
fontanelle
Option 4 Weight
gain
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 28 The most
likely side effect of external radiation to the neck for cancer of larynx is:
Option 1
Constipation
Option 2 Dyspnea
Option 3 Sore
throat
Option 4 Diarrhoea
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 29 When the
respiratory rate of a 12 months old child is 35 breaths/minute, the most appropriate
nursing action is:
Option 1 Notify
the physician
Option 2
Administer Oxygen
Option 3 Reassess
respiratory rate in 15 minutes
Option 4 Document
the findings
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 30 A
nursing intervention in thrombophlebitis would be contraindicated:
Option 1
Maintaining strict bed rest
Option 2 Turning
the patient from side to side
Option 3 Applying
warm packs to the affected leg
Option 4 Massaging
the affected leg
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 31 A
patient with acute pancreatitis has NG tube for low intermittent suction to
prevent:
Option 1 Chronic
distortion
Option 2 Gastric
reflux
Option 3
Pancreatic stimulation
Option 4
Peristalsis
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 32 Platelet
count decreases in:
Option 1 Malaria
Option 2 Filaria
Option 3 Dengue
Option 4 Typhoid
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 33 Eye
padding is applied on unconscious patients to prevent:
Option 1 Dryness
of eye
Option 2 Blinking
of eyes
Option 3 Corneal
ulcer
Option 4 Eye
movement
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 34 Hepatitis-A
is caused:
Option 1 Due to
infected blood transfusion
Option 2 Due to
use of contaminated water
Option 3 Due to
addiction of drug
Option 4 Due to
dialysis
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 35 Top
priority treatment of ventricular fibrillation includes:
Option 1 ECG
monitoring
Option 2 Proper
positioning
Option 3 CPR
Option 4
Catherization
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 36In
following which disease occur due to deficiency of thiamine:
Option 1 Beri-Beri
Option 2 Pellagra
Option 3 Anaemia
Option 4 Scurvy
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 37 To
prevent legal implications,. What should be done by a nurse during
pre-operative period:
Option 1 Provide
psychological support
Option 2 Obtain
written consent
Option 3 Provide
comprehensive nursing care
Option 4 Explain
the patient and his relatives about post-operative complications
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 38Clinical
menifestations of anaemia include except:
Option 1 Low Hb
level
Option 2 Fatigue
Option 3
Hyperactivity
Option 4 Lassitude
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 39 Priority
basis management of a unconscious patient include:
Option 1 I.V.
therapy
Option 2 I.V.
mannitol
Option 3 Clearance
of airway
Option 4 Pain at
Mc burny point
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 40In
oliguria volume of urine is:
Option 1 Less than
100 ml
Option 2 Less than
400 ml
Option 3 Less than
800 ml
Option 4 Absence
of urine
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 41 Management
of cardiac arrest include except:
Option 1 Massive
I.V. infusion
Option 2 O2 Therapy
Option 3 Clearance
of airway
Option 4 Cardiac
compression
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 42 During
head injury what is the cause of increase in body temperature:
Option 1 Pons
injury
Option 2
Hypothalamus injury
Option 3
Cerebellum injury
Option 4 Medulla
injury
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 43 What is
the cause of anaemia in chronic renal failure:
Option 1 Decreased
erythropoietin
Option 2 Hemolysis
Option 3
Production of immature RBCs
Option 4 Inappropriate
renal functioning.
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 44 In
following which is not a cause of hypokalemia:
Option 1 Vomitting
Option 2 Potassium
wasting diuretics
Option 3
Aldosteronism
Option 4 Renal
failure
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 45 Painful
menstruation is termed as:
Option 1
Menorrhage
Option 2
Dysmenorrhea
Option 3
Amenorrhea
Option 4 Decreased
production of prostaglandins
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 46 In
following which is not a sexually transmitted disease?
Option 1 Chancroid
Option 2 Syphilis
Option 3 Fibroid
uterus
Option 4 AIDS
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 47 Fault in
male that may cause infertility includes:
Option 1 Mumps
orchitis
Option 2 Raised
scrotal temperature
Option 3
Undescended testes
Option 4 All the
above
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 48Secretion
from mother's breast following delivery is called:
Option 1
Seduestrum
Option 2 Colostrum
Option 3 Lochia
Option 4
Leucorrhoea
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 49 During
which stage of labour placenta is delivered?
Option 1 Stage 1
Option 2 Stage 2
Option 3 Stage 3
Option 4 Stage 4
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 50 'Pap's
smear" is used for screening of which of the following:
Option 1 Ovarian
cancer
Option 2
Endometrial cancer
Option 3 Cervical
cancer
Option 4 Breast
Cancer
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 51 Which
abdominal grip is used to assess the desecent of head in a pregnant woman?
Option 1 Fundal
Option 2 Lateral
Option 3 Pelvic 1
Option 4 Pelvic 2
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 52 Movements
of the baby felt by the mother are known as :
Option 1
Lightening
Option 2
Engagement
Option 3
Quickening
Option 4
Balottment
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 53 Bedrest
is essential in pre-eclampsia since it:
Option 1 Prevents
eclampsia
Option 2 Mobilizes
tissue fluid thereby lowering blood pressure
Option 3 Improves
blood circulations and decreases oedema
Option 4 Prevents
premature labour
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 54About 25%
of maternal deaths are due to
Option 1 Infection
Option 2 Obstetric
haemorrhage
Option 3 Unsafe
abortion
Option 4 Sclampsia
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 55 Bleeding
after 24 hours of delivery is considered as past partum haemorrhage?
Option 1 When
blood loss is more than 500 ml.
Option 2 When
blood loss is more than 700 ml.
Option 3 When
blood loss is more than 100 ml.
Option 4 When
blood loss is more than 200 ml
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 56In
following which is the highest diameter of pelvis?
Option 1
Anterio-posterior
Option 2 Lateral
Option 3 Oblique
Option 4 All are
equal
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 57 Total
weight gain during pregnancy is about:
Option 1 6 Kg.
Option 2 8 Kg.
Option 3 11 Kg.
Option 4 14 Kg.
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 58In
following, which vaccine is given to a pregnant lady?
Option 1 Measles
Option 2 BCG
Option 3 Tetanus
Option 4 DPT
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 59Primary
feature of cervical cancer includes
Option 1 Polyurea
Option 2 Irregular
menstruation
Option 3 Anorexia
Option 4 Headache
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 60 Total
number of antenatal visit by a pregnant lady should be at least:
Option 1 2
Option 2 3
Option 3 1
Option 4 5
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 61 Commonest
complication of IUD insertion is:
Option 1 Pain
Option 2 Bleeding
Option 3
Perforation
Option 4 Ectopic
pregnancy
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 62 Fertilization
occurs in:
Option 1 Uterus
Option 2 Fallopian
tube
Option 3 Pelvis
Option 4 Vagina
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 63 In
following which is the main cause of PID:
Option 1 Abruptio
placentae
Option 2 Placenta
previa
Option 3 Ectopic
pregnancy
Option 4 PPH
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 64 During
+2 station, position of foetal head is:
Option 1 Below
ischeal spine
Option 2 Above
ischeal spine
Option 3 Behind
ischeal spine
Option 4 Just
above of pelvic inlet
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 65Which of
the following "fontanelle" in child is the first to close?
Option 1 Frontal
Option 2 Occipital
Option 3 Sphenoid
Option 4 Mastoid
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 66 To
calculate the dose of a medicine for a child, which of the following formula is
used:
Option 1 Young's
rule
Option 2 Clark's
rule
Option 3 Fried's
rule
Option 4 All of
the above
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 67 In
premature labour, which of the following medicines is useful for the newborn?
Option 1 Magnesium
sulphate
Option 2 Oxytocin
Option 3
Dexamethasone
Option 4
Testosterone
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 68 A
promising treatment for some children suffering from Thalassemia is:
Option 1 Bone marrow
transplantation
Option 2
Chemotherapeutic agents
Option 3 Radiation
therapy
Option 4 Steriodal
therapy
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 69 A child
is diagnosed with bacterial conjunctivitis, a nurse educate the mother to do
all except:
Option 1 Wash
hands frequently
Option 2 Clean
eyes as prescribed
Option 3 Share
towel and wash cloths
Option 4 Give eye
drops as prescribed
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 70 The
apgar scoring is done to appraise the infant for:
Option 1 Birth
defeats
Option 2
Respiratory effort
Option 3
RH-Sensitization
Option 4 Emotional
stability
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 71 Wilm's
tumor is a tumor of:
Option 1 Kidney
Option 2 Brain
Option 3 Testes
Option 4 Liver
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 72 Normal
birth weight is
Option 1 2.5 - 3
Kg.
Option 2 2 - 2.5
Kg.
Option 3 3 - 3.5
Kg.
Option 4 2.2 - 2.7
Kg.
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 73 What is
the criteria of LBW baby?
Option 1 Birth
Weight < 2 Kg.
Option 2 Birth
Weight < 2.5 Kg.
Option 3 Birth
Weight < 3 Kg.
Option 4 Birth
Weight < 2.7 Kg.
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 74 At which
age a child can starts to brush his teeth?
Option 1 2 years
Option 2 3 years
Option 3 4 years
Option 4 20 months
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 75 While
taking temperature from rectal route in children thermometer should be inserted
about:
Option 1 0.5 Inch
Option 2 1 Inch
Option 3 1.5 Inch
Option 4 2 Inch
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 76 MMR
vaccine is given by:
Option 1 I.M.
route
Option 2 S.C.
route
Option 3 I.V.
route
Option 4 I.D.
route
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 77 Deficiency
of Vitamin D in children may cause:
Option 1
Osteomalacia
Option 2 Rickets
Option 3 Pellagra
Option 4 Beri-Beri
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 78 In
children which disease occur due to protein deficiency:
Hindi Question
Option 1 Marasmus
Option 2
Kwashiorkor
Option 3 Beri-Beri
Option 4 Scurvy
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 79 After
birth of a baby, breast-feeding should be started:
Option 1 Within 2
hours
Option 2 Within
1/2 hour
Option 3 On second
day
Option 4 After 1
week
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 80 When
physiological Jaundice appears in new born baby?
Option 1 At birth
Option 2 On second
week
Option 3 On second
day
Option 4 On First
Week
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 81 In
following which is not a preventive measure for tetanus neonatorum:
Option 1 T.T.
vaccination
Option 2 Follow
five clean rule
Option 3 T.T.
immunization during reproductive age.
Option 4
Penicillin antibiotic
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 82 Causative
organism of chickenpox is:
Option 1 Paramixo
virus
Option 2 Varicella
zoster
Option 3 Herpes
simplex virus
Option 4
Bordetalla pertussis
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 83 In a
patient of fever, "Fastigium" is term given to which of the following
period?
Option 1 Onset of
fever
Option 2 When body
temperature has reached its maximum and remains constant
Option 3 When the
body temperature is gradually returning to normal
Option 4 When body
temperature is suddenly returning to normal
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 84 Which of
the following disease is not transmitted by airborne droplets?
Option 1 Measles
Option 2
Chickenpox
Option 3
Poliomyelitis
Option 4
Tuberculosis
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 85 WHO was
established on;
Option 1 14th
April, 1948
Option 2 7th
April, 1948
Option 3 7th
April, 1945
Option 4 7th
April, 1947
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 86 What is
the full form of UNDP:
Option 1 United
Nation's Development Programme
Option 2 Unique Nursing
Developmental Programme
Option 3 United
Nation Developmental Project
Option 4 United
Nurses'Development Project
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 87 Typhoid
fever is a:
Option 1 Bacterial
disease
Option 2 Skin
disease
Option 3 Parasitic
disease
Option 4 Viral
disease
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 88 Polio
vaccine is prepared from:
Option 1 Live
attenuated organism
Option 2 Killed
organisms
Option 3 Toxoid
Option 4 Aerobic
bacteria
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 89 The full
form of abbreviation ICDS is:
Option 1 Indian
Child Development Scheme
Option 2 Internal
Committee of Development Scheme
Option 3
International Childrens Development Scheme
Option 4
Integrated Child Development Service
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 90 Community
Health Nurse explains a new diagnosed diabetes mellitus patient that the purpose
of medication is to treat:
Option 1
Hypoglycemia
Option 2
Hyperglycemia
Option 3
Hypocalcemia
Option 4
Hyuperbilirubinaemia
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 91 Which is
the most appropriate time of IUD insertion?
Option 1 During or
within 10 days of menstruation
Option 2 About the
midst of the cycle
Option 3 Just
before menstruation
Option 4 At any
time of menstruation
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 92 The type
of BCG vaccine is :
Option 1 Killed
vaccine
Option 2 Triple
vaccine
Option 3 Live
attenuated
Option 4 Combined
vaccine
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 93 WHO-ORS
packet includes following except:
Option 1 Sodium
Chloride
Option 2 Potassium
Chloride
Option 3 Sodium
Bicarbonate
Option 4 Calcium
Carbonate
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 94 Infant
mortality rate is expressed in terms of:
Option 1 Rate per
100 live birth
Option 2 Rate per
1000 live birth
Option 3 Rate per
1000 total birth
Option 4 Rate per
100 total birth
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 95 On which
day International AIDS day is celebrated every year:
Option 1 1st May
Option 2 7th April
Option 3 11th
April
Option 4 1st
December
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 96 In
following which disease is caused by Varicella Zoster:
Option 1
Diphtheria
Option 2 Small pox
Option 3 Symphilis
Option 4 Chicken
Pox
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 97 Treatment
therapy which is used for T.B. :
Option 1 MDT
Option 2 BCG
vaccination
Option 3 ORS
Option 4 DOT's
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 98 Polio is
the mainly infection of:
Option 1
Respiratory tract
Option 2 Central
nervous system
Option 3
Alimentary tract
Option 4
Reproductive system
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 99 What do
you mean by incidence:
Option 1 New cases
of any disease
Option 2 Old cases
of any disease
Option 3 Total
cases of any disease
Option 4 All of
the above
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 100 In
following which disease has been eradicated from all over world:
Option 1 Chicken
pox
Option 2 Small pox
Option 3 Cholera
Option 4 Pertusis
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 101 AIDS is
a:
Option 1 Bacterial
disease
Option 2 Viral
disease
Option 3 Fungal
disease
Option 4 Protozoal
disease
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 102 The
richest natural source of vitamin A is:
Option 1 Carrot
Option 2 Fish
Option 3 Peas
Option 4 Cod liver
oil
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 103 Florence
Nightingale was born in which country:
Option 1 England
Option 2 Germany
Option 3 Italy
Option 4 France
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 104 Ascorbic
acid is a:
Option 1 Protein
Option 2 Vitamin
Option 3 Enzyme
Option 4 Lipid
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 105 Mid-day
meal programme provides how many calories and proteins per day?
Option 1 300
calories and 6-12 gram of proteins
Option 2 200
calories and 6-12 grams of proteins
Option 3 300
calories and 8-12 grams of proteins
Option 4 200
calories and 8-12 grams of proteins
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 106 Severe
muscle wasting, growth failure and loss of subcutaneous fat are features of
Option 1
Kwashiokor
Option 2 Beri-Beri
Option 3 Scurvy
Option 4 Marasmus
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 107 Which
of the following formula is correct for calculating Body Mass Index (BMI):
Option 1 Weight in
Kg. + (Height in meter)2
Option 2 Weight in
Kg. - (Height in meter)2
Option 3 Weight in
Kg. x (Height in meter)2
Option 4 Weight in
Kg. / (Height in meter)2
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 108 The
first indicator of protein Energy Malnutrition (PEM) in children is:
Option 1 Over
weight for age
Option 2 Weak and
lethargic child
Option 3 Under
weight for age
Option 4 Child
having less intake of food
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 109 Pernicious
anaemia is caused by a deficiency of:
Option 1 Thiamine
Option 2 Iron
Option 3 Vitamin
B12
Option 4 Folic
Acid
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 110 Patient
comes to primary health care centre with signs of clotting problem, a community
health nurse suspects the deficiency of:
Option 1 Vitamin C
Option 2 Vitamin K
Option 3 Vitamin E
Option 4 Iron
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 111 Switching
from mother's breast milk to normal feeding in infants is called:
Option 1 Trail
feeding
Option 2 Weaning
Option 3
Substitution
Option 4
Replacement feeding
Correct
Option 2
Q. No. 112 In
following which is the major indication of ECT:
Option 1 Severe
depression with suicidal risk
Option 2 Severe
mania
Option 3 Phobia
Option 4 Hysteria
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 113 What is
the main side effect of ECT:
Option 1
Retrograde amnesia
Option 2 Fracture
Option 3
Hypotension
Option 4 Seizure
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 114 Librium
is a:
Option 1 Antimanic
drug
Option 2
Antidepressant drug
Option 3
Antiparkinson drug
Option 4
Tranquilizer drug
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 115 Criteria
of a profession include except:
Option 1 A
profession should be intellectual
Option 2 It should
be self governing
Option 3 In a
profession there is no place for higher education
Option 4 A
profession should be service-oriented
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 116 Qualities
of a nurse include except:
Option 1 Caring
attitude
Option 2 Honesty
Option 3 Talkative
Option 4 Well
balanced life
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 117 Use of
code of ethics in nursing profession includes:
Option 1 It guides
professional behavior
Option 2 It
prevent a nurse from practicing below the standard set by the code
Option 3 It can be
used to protect a nurse who is falsely accused of doing something wrong
Option 4 All of
the above
Correct
Option 4
Q. No. 118 A
failure in professional duty, practice or skill that leads to injury or harm to
the patient, is termed as:
Option 1
Malpractice
Option 2
Negligence
Option 3 Crime
Option 4
Misunderstanding
Correct
Option 1
Q. No. 119 What is
the full term of TNAI?
Option 1 Training
in Nursing at All India Level
Option 2 Trained
Nurses of All India
Option 3 Trained
Nurses Association of India
Option 4 Training
in Nurses at International Level
Correct
Option 3
Q. No. 120 The
target "Health for All by 2000 AD" was declared by:
Option 1 WHO
Option 2 UNICEF
Option 3 Red Cross
Society
Option 4 TNAI
Correct
Option 1
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