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Q. No. 1 The functional unit of kidney is
Option A Glomerulus
Option B Nephron
Option C Bowman's capsule
Option D Calyx
Correct Option B
Q. No. 2 Superficial layer of skin is called
Option A Dermis
Option B Adipose
Option C Epidermis
Option D Subcutaneous
Correct Option C
Q. No. 3 In human body rods and cones are related with
Option A Vision
Option B Hearing
Option C Smell
Option D Touch
Correct Option A
Q. No. 4 The blood vessel which supplies the heart is
Option A Pulmonary
Option B Coronary
Option C Cardiac
Option D Renal
Correct Option B
Q. No. 5 The bone which is also known as 'knee cap'
Option A Tibia
Option B Fibula
Option C Femur
Option D Patella
Correct Option D
Q. No. 6 Exchange of gases between the blood and lungs
is called as
Option A Oxygenation
Option B External respiration
Option C Internal respiration
Option D Excretion
Correct Option B
Q. No. 7 The insufficiency of this substance in the
blood may lead to edema of the body
Option A Albumin
Option B Hormones
Option C Electrolytes
Option D Gases
Correct Option A
Q. No. 8 Tissue repair can take place due to the
synthesis of proteins which occur in the
Option A Golgi Apparatus
Option B Mitochondria
Option C Ribosome
Option D Endoplasmic Reticulum
Correct Option C
Q. No. 9 Regulation of water and sodium in the body is
by the action of
Option A Antidiuretic hormone
Option B Aldosterone
Option C Thirst mechanism
Option D All of the above
Correct Option D
Q. No. 10 Net ATP molecules generated in the
conversion of glucose to lactate are
Option A 00
Option B 22
Option C 33
Option D 44
Correct Option B
Q. No. 11 Which antibody crosses placenta?
Option A IgA
Option B IgG
Option C IgE
Option D IgM
Correct Option B
Q. No. 12 Best indicator of HIV prognosis
Option A CD4T cell count
Option B CD8T cell count
Option C HIV RNA
Option D ELIS
Correct Option A
Q. No. 13 A chemical agent that inhibits bacterial growth
is called
Option A Disinfectant
Option B Bacteriostat
Option C Germicide
Option D Sterilant
Correct Option B
Q. No. 14 Rice water stool is characteristic symptom
of which of the following Infection-
Option A Vibrio cholerae
Option B Corynebacterium diptheriae
Option C Pneumococcus
Option D Eisherichia coli
Correct Option A
Q. No. 15 The growth and multiplication of
microorganism is known as:
Option A Staining
Option B Culture
Option C Isolation
Option D Autoclaving
Correct Option B
Q. No. 16 State of uneasiness arising out of anticipation
of danger is termed as
Option A Obsessions
Option B Anxiety
Option C Phobia
Option D Compulsions
Correct Option B
Q. No. 17 Pathological repetition involving imitation
of speech of another person is termed as:
Option A Enuresis
Option B Echolalia
Option C Encopresis
Option D Echopraxia
Correct Option B
Q. No. 18 Illusion is a:
Option A False perception
Option B Misinterpretation of actual stimuli
Option C Increased intensity of stimuli
Option D Sensory distortions
Correct Option B
Q. No. 19 Fear of heights is termed as:
Option A Algophobia
Option B Claustrophobia
Option C Acrophobia
Option D Gamophobia
Correct Option C
Q. No. 20 Pathological repetition by imitation of the
behavior of another person is termed as:
Option A Echolalia
Option B Encopresis
Option C Enuresis
Option D Echopraxia
Correct Option D
Q. No. 21 Grandiose delusions occur in which of the
following disorder?
Option A Manic disorder
Option B Obsessive compulsive disorder
Option C Phobic disorder
Option D Anxiety disorder
Correct Option A
Q. No. 22 Clouding of consciousness is characteristic
of:
Option A Schizophrenia
Option B Dementia
Option C Hysteria
Option D Delirium
Correct Option D
Q. No. 23 A patient has been taking Lithium carbonate
for his hypomania. While taking this drug which mineral
would you recommend in adequate quantities?
Option A Sodium
Option B Iron
Option C Iodine
Option D Calcium
Correct Option A
Q. No. 24 Bleeding from the nose is known as:
Option A Epistaxis
Option B Haemoptysis
Option C Hematemesis
Option D Hematuria
Correct Option A
Q. No. 25 Which of the following is used to assess the
level of consciousness
Option A Apgar score
Option B Braden scale
Option C Glassgow coma scale
Option D Snellen's chart
Correct Option C
Q. No. 26 Color coding for Nitrous oxide cylinder is
Option A Black
Option B Light Blue
Option C Grey
Option D Yellow
Correct Option B
Q. No. 27 Which
is the most common microorganisms in nosocomial infections?
Option A Esherichia coli
Option B Enterococci
Option C Staphylcoccus aureus
Option D Serratia
Correct Option A
Q. No. 28 The solution used to disinfect the bed linen
of HIV positive patient is:
Option A Dettol
Option B Lysol
Option C Savlon
Option D Sodium hypochlorite
Correct Option D
Q. No. 29 The pulse site in neck is called-
Option A Temporal
Option B Popliteal
Option C Carotid
Option D Radial
Correct Option C
Q. No. 30 Five teaspoon is equivalent to how many
millilitres(ml)
Option A 30 ml
Option B 25 ml
Option C 12 ml
Option D 22 ml
Correct Option B
Q. No. 31 The nutrient that helps in tissue repair is
Option A Carbohydrate
Option B Fat
Option C Protein
Option D Vitamin
Correct Option C
Q. No. 32 Emotion can be best expressed through which
of the following?
Option A Language
Option B Gestures
Option C Facial Expression
Option D All of the above
Correct Option D
Q. No. 33 98.6F is equal to
Option A 36.5 C
Option B 37.2 C
Option C 37 C
Option D 38 C
Correct Option B
Q. No. 34 When a drug is to be given at bed time,
which of the following coded instruction is used?
Option A ac
Option B hs
Option C od
Option D sos
Correct Option B
Q. No. 35 Lack of oxygen in the tissues is called
Option A Hypoxia
Option B Asphyxia
Option C Anoxaemia
Option D Cyanosis
Correct Option A
Q. No. 36 X-ray study of the fallopian tube is known
as
Option A Salpingography
Option B Myelography
Option C Cholecystoscopy
Option D Pyelography
Correct Option A
Q. No. 37 To give fowler's position to a patient, the
head end of the bed is raised to
Option A 35 degree angle
Option B 15 degree angle
Option C 60 degree angle
Option D 45 degree angle
Correct Option D
Q. No. 38 The most common deficiency seen in
alcoholics is:
Option A Thiamine
Option B Riboflavin
Option C Pyridoxine
Option D Pantothenic acid
Correct Option A
Q. No. 39 Before giving blood transfusion a nurse must
note the date, time of collection and must be aware that packed RBC's can be
stored up to:
Option A 25 days
Option B 35 days
Option C 45 days
Option D 5 days
Correct Option B
Q. No. 40 Glycated hemoglobin (hbA1c) tests, mean
glucose levels:
Option A Over 2 days
Option B Over 14 days
Option C Over 30 days
Option D Over 90 days
Correct Option D
Q. No. 41 What is the usual site of intramuscular
injection a nurse will choose in an adult for Z-track technique?
Option A Deltoid
Option B Rectus femoris
Option C Ventrogluteal
Option D Vastus Lateralis
Correct Option C
Q. No. 42 Which of the following type of bandage is
used for collar bone fracture
Option A T- bandage
Option B Spica cast
Option C Figure of eight bandage
Option D Capline bandage
Correct Option C
Q. No. 43 The most commonest cause of Asthma is
Option A Allergy
Option B Microbial infection
Option C Pulmonary hypertension
Option D Pneumothorax
Correct Option A
Q. No. 44 The disease causing lens opacity leading to
disability in elderly is
Option A Glaucoma
Option B Cataract
Option C keratoconus
Option D Corneal dystrophies
Correct Option B
Q. No. 45 Reduction of bone density leading to
increased susceptibility to fracture is
Option A Osteomalcia
Option B Paget's Disease
Option C Osteoarthritis
Option D Osteoporosis
Correct Option D
Q. No. 46 The best position for the patient with increased
intracranial pressure is to
Option A Keep the head of the bed flat
Option B Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees
Option C Maintain patient on the left side with the
head supported on a pillow
Option D Use a continuous-rotation bed to continuously
change patient position
Correct Option B
Q. No. 47 Which of the following is correct regarding
tendon
Option A It connect bone to muscle
Option B It possible strength to muscle
Option C It lubricate joints with synovial fluid
Option D It relieve friction between moving parts
Correct Option A
Q. No. 48 Which of following supplemental medication
is most frequently ordered in conjunction with furosemide (Lasix)?
Option A Chloride
Option B Potassium
Option C Digoxin
Option D Sodium
Correct Option B
Q. No. 49 Decreased number of erythrocytes,
leukocytes, and platelets is indicative of what condition?
Option A Pernicious
Option B Aplastic anemia
Option C Sickle cell anemia
Option D Polycythemia
Correct Option B
Q. No. 50 Which of the following is a classic symptoms
of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
Option A Fatigue and fever
Option B Weight loss
Option C Shortness of breath
Option D Superficial lesions over the cheeks and nose
Correct Option D
Q. No. 51 Corticosteroid drugs suppresses
Option A Sympathetic response
Option B Pain receptors
Option C Immune response
Option D Neural transmission
Correct Option C
Q. No. 52 Which diagnostic test will be ordered to
confirm pneumonia?
Option A Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis
Option B Chest X-ray
Option C Blood cultures
Option D Sputum culture and sensitivity
Correct Option D
Q. No. 53 A client has received a preliminary
diagnosis of tuberculosis. What is the definitive diagnostic test to be done
Option A chest X-ray
Option B Mantoux test
Option C Sputum culture
Option D Tuberculin test
Correct Option C
Q. No. 54 Which of the following is true about acute
respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
Option A Alveoli are over expanded
Option B Alveoli increase perfusion
Option C Alveolar spaces are filled with fluid
Option D Alveoli improve gaseous exchange
Correct Option C
Q. No. 55 Which symptom occurs initially in
Parkinson's disease?
Option A Akinesia
Option B Aspiration of food
Option C Dementia
Option D Pill rolling movements of the hand
Correct Option D
Q. No. 56 The following is an example of a benign
tumor:
Option A Melanoma
Option B Fibrosarcoma
Option C Leiomyoma
Option D Lymphoma
Correct Option C
Q. No. 57 Most common cancer in women worldwide is
Option A Melanoma
Option B Carcinoma of breast
Option C Carcinoma of thyroid
Option D Carcinoma of lung
Correct Option B
Q. No. 58 Disease which is imported into a country in
which it does not otherwise occur is
Option A Exotic
Option B Epizootic
Option C Endemic
Option D Pandemic
Correct Option A
Q. No. 59 Time interval between invasion of infection
agent and appearance of the first symptom is called
Option A Serial interval
Option B Incubation period
Option C Quarantine
Option D Period of infectivity
Correct Option B
Q. No. 60 Sex ratio in India is expressed as
Option A No.of males per 100 females
Option B No. of females per 100 males
Option C No. of males per 1000 females
Option D No. of females per 1000 males
Correct Option D
Q. No. 61 Mode of transmission of malaria is by
Option A Water
Option B Vector
Option C Air
Option D Food
Correct Option B
Q. No. 62 Tuberculosis is an infectious diseases cause
by
Option A Viruses
Option B Protozoa
Option C Bacteria
Option D Fungi
Correct Option C
Q. No. 63 In the communication process, to encode
means:
Option A Speak to large groups of people
Option B Interpret a code
Option C Translate ideas in to a code
Option D Block a pathway between the sender and
receiver of a message
Correct Option C
Q. No. 64 Chikungunya is transmitted by?
Option A Aedes
Option B Culex
Option C Mansonoides
Option D Anopheles
Correct Option A
Q. No. 65 ASHA scheme is associated with:
Option A ICDS
Option B Rural health mission
Option C 20 Points Programme
Option D Minimum needs programme
Correct Option B
Q. No. 66 Pulse polio immunization covers:
Option A 0-5yr children
Option B 0-1yr children
Option C 1-5yr children
Option D 0-2yr children
Correct Option A
Q. No. 67 Incineration is done for:
Option A Waste sharps
Option B Human anatomical waste
Option C Radiographic waste
Option D Used batteries
Correct Option B
Q. No. 68 Which of the following risks is associated
with placenta praevia?
Option A Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
Option B Chronic Hypertension
Option C Infection
Option D Hemorrhage
Correct Option D
Q. No. 69 Second stage of labour begins when
Option A The woman begins of expel clear vaginal fluid
Option B Cervix is completely dilated
Option C Contractions are regular
Option D Membranes have ruptured
Correct Option B
Q. No. 70 True labor is characterized by
Option A Effacement and dilatation of cervix
Option B Painful uterine contraction
Option C Supra pubic discomfort at regular interval
Option D All of the above
Correct Option A
Q. No. 71 Which of the following fetal positions is
most favorable for birth?
Option A Vertex
Option B Oblique lie
Option C Frank breech presentations
Option D Posterior position of the head
Correct Option A
Q. No. 72 The permanent cessation of menstruations is
Option A Amenorrhea
Option B Menopause
Option C Oligomenorrhea
Option D Hypomenorrhea
Correct Option B
Q. No. 73 FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as
early as which of the following?
Option A 15 weeks gestation
Option B 30 weeks gestation
Option C 28 weeks gestation
Option D 20 weeks gestation
Correct Option D
Q. No. 74 Before the placenta functions, the corpus
luteum is the primary source for synthesis of which of the following hormones?
Option A Thyroxine
Option B FSH
Option C Estrogen and progesterone
Option D T4 and TSH
Correct Option C
Q. No. 75 The most ideal pelvis for child birth.
Pelvis serves as the passage way for the passenger (fetus) during child birth:
Option A Gynecoid
Option B Anthropoid
Option C Patypelloid
Option D Android
Correct Option A
Q. No. 76 A patient in the second stage of labour is
given which of the following injections to improve uterine contractions?
Option A Oxytocin
Option B Merthergin
Option C Phenergan
Option D Diazepam
Correct Option A
Q. No. 77 Premature separation of a normally implanted
placenta during the second half of pregnancy, usually with severe hemorrhage is
known as:
Option A Placenta
Option B Ectopic pregnancy
Option C Incompetent cervix
Option D Abruptio placentae
Correct Option D
Q. No. 78 When administering an IM injection to an
infant the nurse in charge should use which site?
Option A Deltoid
Option B Dorsogluteal
Option C Ventrogluteal
Option D Vastuslaterialis
Correct Option D
Q. No. 79 Following ventricular septal defect repair
priority nursing intervention is:
Option A Monitor urine output
Option B Check the pulmonary status
Option C Determine the status of operative site
Option D Check the patency of I/V line
Correct Option B
Q. No. 80 A message is a signal that serves as:
Option A Stimuli for a receiver
Option B Stimuli for a mass audience
Option C Stimuli for a speaker
Option D Noise reduction
Correct Option A
Q. No. 81 The most common symptom in children with
symptomatic cardiac malfunction is:
Option A Mental retardation
Option B Inherited genetic disorder
Option C Delayed physical growth
Option D Clubbing of the finger tips
Correct Option C
Q. No. 82 A child is on oral preparation, what is the
important teaching point for this child?
Option A Loose stools are common with iron preparation
Option B Iron preparation need to take 1 hour before
meal
Option C Allow the child to take diluted iron
preparation through straw
Option D Avoid citrus fruits along with iron therapy
Correct Option C
Q. No. 83 Toilet training to a baby should be started
at the age of:
Option A 12 months
Option B 15 months
Option C 18 months
Option D 24 months
Correct Option C
Q. No. 84 In following which communicable disease is
also known as "German Measles"
Option A Mumps
Option B Rubella
Option C Diphtheria
Option D Pertusis
Correct Option B
Q. No. 85 Clinical features of diphtheria in children
include
Option A Sore throat, dysphasia and low grade fever
Option B Sore throat, high grade fever and rash
Option C Swelling of parotid gland, earache, fever
Option D Sore throat, rash and pain in abdomen
Correct Option A
Q. No. 86 Which guideline a nurse has to follow when
caring for pressure sore
Option A Wound must remain moist
Option B Tight packing of the wound
Option C Dressing to dry before removal
Option D Plastic sheet type of dressing for cover
Correct Option C
Q. No. 87 Nurse working in an operation theatre must
know, the risk of HIV infection with needle stick injury is about
Option A 1:100
Option B 1:200
Option C 1:300
Option D 1:400
Correct Option C
Q. No. 88 Which ICUD needs to be replaced only after
10 years?
Option A Copper "I" 200
Option B Progestasert
Option C Cu- "T" 380A
Option D Nova "I"
Correct Option C
Q. No. 89 Which one the following viruses cause post
transfusion hepatitis?
Option A Hepatitis A
Option B Hepatitis B
Option C Hepatitis C
Option D Hepatitis D
Correct Option C
Q. No. 90 Assuming the menstrual cycle length as 32
days and LMP as june 10th .Which of the following is most likely due date?
Option A March 12
Option B March 17
Option C March 21
Option D March 27
Correct Option C
Q. No. 91 Thirty year old female complained of wetting
her dress while coughing. Which one of the following conditions a nurse should
suspect?
Option A Cystocele
Option B Rectocele
Option C Enterocele
Option D Urethrocele
Correct Option A
Q. No. 92 Oxygenated Blood enter the fetal circulation
form umbilical vein via
Option A Ductus venosus
Option B Ductus asteriosus
Option C Intra hepatic vein
Option D Intra hepatic artery
Correct Option A
Q. No. 93 While recording Intake Output nurse has to
consider Insensible water loss from human body and the normal loss is
Option A 200ml
Option B 400ml
Option C 800ml
Option D 1000ml
Correct Option C
Q. No. 94 An adult client with tuberculosis asks the
nurse if she needs to follow any special diet. Which suggestion would be most
appropriate for the nurse to give?
Option A Eat a high-carbohydrate diet
Option B Eat a low-calorie, low-protein diet
Option C Eat frequent small, high-calorie meals
Option D Consume only high-carbohydrate liquids
Correct Option C
Q. No. 95 Which of the following statements indicates
that client with a peptic ulcer understands the dietary modifications how will
need to follow at home?
Option A "I should eat a bland, soft diet."
Option B "It is important to eat six small meals
a day."
Option C "I should drink several glasses of milk
a day."
Option D "I should avoid alcohol and
caffeine."
Correct Option D
Q. No. 96 A client with angina shows the nurse her
nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) that she is carrying in a plastic bag in her pocket.
The nurse instructs the client that nitroglycerin should be kept
Option A In the refrigerator
Option B In a cool, moist place
Option C In a dark container to shield from light
Option D In a plastic bag where it is readily
available
Correct Option C
Q. No. 97 A client has his leg immobilized in a long
leg cast. Which of the following assessments would indicate the early beginning
of circulatory impairment ?
Option A Inability to move toes
Option B Cyanosis of toes
Option C Complaints of cast tightness
Option D Tingling of toes
Correct Option D
Q. No. 98 Patient teaching about diabetic foot care
should include the need for:
Option A Rub feet with alcohol to toughen skin
Option B Use a heating pad to warm feet
Option C Inspect feet daily for cracks or cuts
Option D Disinfect scissors before removing calluses
Correct Option C
Q. No. 99 The dietary instructions the nurse gives a
patient with ulcerative colitis would include a recommendation to eat foods
that are low in:
Option A Residue
Option B Carbohydrate
Option C Fat
Option D Calories
Correct Option A
Q. No. 100 Which food should the nurse remove form the
tray of a patient on a low-residue diet?
Option A Cottage cheese
Option B Chicken breast
Option C Mashed potatoes
Option D Green beans
Correct Option D
Q. No. 101 ______________occurs when a response is followed
by experiencing something pleasurable
Option A Positive reinforcement
Option B Negative reinforcement
Option C Punishment
Option D Generation
Correct Option A
Q. No. 102 Cognition refers to
Option A behavior that is observable and external
Option B behavior that is directly measureable
Option C the mental events that take place while is
person behaving
Option D memories
Correct Option C
Q. No. 103 learning is
Option A any temporary change in behavior
Option B a change in behavior due to maintain
Option C any permanent change in behavior brought
about by experience
Option D any permanent change in behavior due to
maturation
Correct Option C
Q. No. 104 Memory can be best described as
Option A a series of storage bins or boxes
Option B or process of storage
Option C a series of passive data files
Option D an active system that encodes, stores, and
retrieves information
Correct Option D
Q. No. 105 Which structure of the personality
according to Freud, works on the reality Principle?
Option A ID
Option B Ego
Option C Super ego
Option D Ubido
Correct Option B
Q. No. 106 To increase awareness of rural population
towards small family norm, the best method is
Option A Film show
Option B Charts and exhibits
Option C Role playing
Option D Television
Correct Option C
Q. No. 107 Which of the following is one of the ways
to promote wellness in one's life?
Option A Get enough sleep
Option B Eat whatever you want, as long as it tastes
good
Option C Don't worry about managing your time
Option D Avoid getting too involved with
Correct Option A
Q. No. 108 Four main reasons for people's behavior are
the following except:
Option A Beliefs
Option B Knowledge
Option C Intelligence
Option D Attitudes
Correct Option C
Q. No. 109 For improving health of people it is
necessary to enable people to learn skills. Following Action are appropriate
except:
Option A To establish good relationships
Option B To communicate clearly
Option C To tell them wait and watch
Option D To encourage participation
Correct Option C
Q. No. 110 Following is/are thing(s) to be considered
before choosing health education methods:
Option A People readiness to change
Option B Method according to culture
Option C Availability of resources
Option D All of the above
Correct Option D
Q. No. 111 A woman is scheduled for radiation therapy
following a mastectomy. The nurse can expect that this client may have
Option A More energy during therapy
Option B An increased appetite
Option C Skin changes at the radiation site
Option D Diarrhea
Correct Option C
Q. No. 112 The nurse is caring for an adult admitted
with a diagnosis of a brain tumor. Shortly after her admission, the client
suffers a seizure. The nurse's initial intervention must be directed towards
Option A Controlling the seizure
Option B Protecting the client
Option C Restraining the client
Option D Reducing circulation to the brain
Correct Option B
Q. No. 113 During the health history interview. Which
of the following strategies is the most effective for the nurses to use to help
clients feel that they have an active role in their health care?
Option A Ask clients to complete a questionnaire
Option B Provide clients with written instructions
Option C Ask clients for this description of events
and for their views concerning past medical care
Option D Ask client if they have any questions
Correct Option C
Q. No. 114 Older adults with known cardiovascular
disease must balance which of the following measures for optimum health?
Option A Diet, exercise and medication
Option B Stress, hypertension and pain
Option C Mental health, diet and stress
Option D Social events, diet and smoking
Correct Option A
Q. No. 115 Which of the following factors is most
important for healing an infested decubitis ulcer?
Option A Adequate circulatory status
Option B Scheduled periods of rest
Option C Balanced nutritional diet
Option D Fluid intake of 1,500 ml/day
Correct Option A
Q. No. 116 The nurse is developing a community health
education program about STDs. Which information about women who acquire
gonorrhea should be included?
Option A Women are more reluctant than men to seek
medical treatment
Option B Gonorrhea is not easily transmitted to women
who are menopausal
Option C Women with gonorrhea are usually asymptomatic
Option D Gonorrhea is usually a mild disease for women
Correct Option C
Q. No. 117 The nurse is developing an education plan
for clients with hypertension. Which of the following long-term goals would it
be most appropriate for the nurse to emphasize to the clients?
Option A Develop a plan to limit stress
Option B Participate in a weight reduction program
Option C Administer pain medication as soon as the
client requests it
Option D Change pain medications periodically to avoid
drug tolerance
Correct Option C
Q. No. 118 The antidote for heparin is
Option A Vitamin k
Option B Warfarin (Coumadin)
Option C Thrombin
Option D Protamine sulfate
Correct Option D
Q. No. 119 Which nursing assessment is important in a
patient with ascites?
Option A Hematest of all stools
Option B Bowel sounds
Option C Abdominal girth
Option D Urine output
Correct Option C
Q. No. 120 Intravenous pyelography has been ordered to
search for kidney stones preparation, the nurse must first:
Option A Weight the patient
Option B Determine whether the patient has any allergy
to iodine
Option C Note the last bowel movement
Option D Record the baseline vital signs
Correct Option B
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