AIIMS
Patna NO 2020
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Section : Anatomy & physiology
1.The apex of the heart is formed mostly by the:
A. left ventricle
B. right atrium
C. left atrium
D. central ventricle
2.Which of the following is the largest cranial nerve?
A. Cranial VI
B. Cranial nerve X
C. Cranial nerve VII
D. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal)
3.Tarsals of the ankles are examples of which type of
bone?
A. Short bones
B. Sesamoid bones
C. Long bones
D. Pneumatic bones
4.How many bones are there in the lower extremities in
a normal adult?
A. 58
B. 62
C. 64
D. 60
5.What is the approximate maximum air volume in the
lung for normal healthy adult?
A. 2400 ml
B. 3000 mL
C. 300 ml
D. 6000 ml
6.Carpometacarpal joint is an example of which of the
following types of joints?
A. Hinge
B. Ball and socket
C. Pivot
D. Saddle
7.Which of the following layers of the adrenal gland
secretes glucocorticoids?
A. Adrenal medulla
B. Zona glomerulosa
C. Zona reticularis
D. Zona fasciculata
8.Which of the following is an example of
ball-and-socket joints?
A. Skull joint
B. Thumb joint
C. Hip joint
D. Elbow joint
9.What is the synonym of Clotting Factor II?
A. Christmas factor
B. Fibrinogen
C. Calcium
D. Prothrombin
10.Which of the following quadriceps femoris muscles
help in flexion of the thigh?
A. Rectus femoris
B. Vastus medialis
C. Vastus intermedius
D. Vastus lateralis
11.Which of the following parts of the brain controls body temperature?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Hippocampus
C. Pons
D. Amygdala
12. How many cervical nerves are there in the spinal cord?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 8
D. 12
13.The elbow is an example of a _ joint.
A. hinge
B. pivot
C. condyloid
D. planar
14. The expanded ends of a long bone are called:
A. Tubercle
B. Epicondyle
C. Diaphysis
D. Epiphyses
15. The posterior pituitary consists mainly of -
A. Beta cells
B. C cells
C. T cells
D. Neuronal projections
16.Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted
from the anterior pituitary?
A. Adrenocorticotropin
B. Prolactin
C. Human growth hormone
D. Oxytocin
17.A _ is a cell that manufactures and stores the
protein keratin.
A. Keraticellyte
B. keracyte
C. keratinocyte
D. keratinolyte
18.Which of the following is an example of synarthrosis
joint?
A. Fibrous joints of the skull sutures
B. Wrist joints
C. Hip joints
D. Elbow joint
19.Which of the following hormones inhibits release of
growth hormone?
A. Dopamine
B. Somatotropin
C. Somatostatin
D. Thyrotropin inhibiting hormone
20.Oxytocin is mainly involved in which of the
following functions?
A. Motor skills
B. Childbirth and lactation
C. Growth and mental ability
D. Regulation of blood pressure
Section : Microbiology
21. Which of the following is NOT related to MMR
vaccine?
A. Rubella
B. Measles
C. Rickets
D. Mumps
22.Who among the following devised the autoclave used
for sterilisation?
A. Charles Chamberland
B. Robert Koch
C. Edward Jenner
D. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
23.Widal, a serological test, is used to detect the
presence of which of the following pathogenic microorganisms?
A. E. Coli
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Haemophilus influenza
D. Salmonella typhi
24. The causative agent of Lyme disease is:
A. Rickettsia prowazekii
B. Alphavirus
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Trypnosoma brucei gamiense
25. Which of the following microorganisms causes
gonorrhoea?
A. Stylus gonorrhoeae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Stereotyoist gonorrhoeae
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
26.What is the optimum temperature in an autoclave to
achieve sterility?
A. 121 °C for 30 minutes
B. 60 °C for 30 minutes
B. 60 °C for 30 minutes
C. 34 °C for 30 minutes
D. 27 °C for 20 minutes
27.Which of the following involves the introduction of
antibodies into the body from an animal or person already immune to the
disease? A. Active immunity B. Artificially acquired passive immunity C.
Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Innate immunity
28. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by:
A. IgG
B. IgE
C. IgM
D. IgA
29. Rod-shaped bacteria are called:
A. Cocci
B. Clusters
C. Bacillus
D. Spirochetes
30.Which of the following is true about IgM?
A. It is not produced by vertebrates.
B. It forms the initial immune response.
C. It is not an isotypes of antibody.
D. It is the smallest antibody.
Section : Sociology
31.As per 2011 census survey, – per cent of the
population of India suffer from disability (in the identified 8 categories).
A. 2.21
B. 1.2
C. 2.5
D. 3.1
32.Who is considered as the father of sociology?
A. Auguste Comte
B. Maclver
C. Emile Durkheim
D. Kingsley Davis
33.Which of the following is NOT a stage of
socialisation?
A. Oral stage
B. Despair stage
C. Oedipal stage
D. Latency stage
34.Caste status is an example of which of the
following status?
A. Monetary
B. Ascribed
C. Achieved
D. General
35. The general process of acquiring culture is
referred to as:
A. Dispersion
B. Diffusion
C. Socialization
D. Acculturation
36.Socialisation is a process involving:
A. declaring everything as belonging to society
B. setting up the social norms
C. Inducting people to adapt in society
D. Normalisation of criminals and antisocial elements
37.Who said that man is a social animal?
A. Maclver
B. Auguste Comte
C. Aristotle
D. Ginseberg
38.Any small group marked by continuous close
interaction of a highly personal and emotionally supportive nature is called
a/an - group.
A. reference
B. secondary
C. primary
D. interest
39.Polyandry means:
A. a form of marriage that joins one female with more
than one male
B. a form of marriage that joins one male with more
than one female
C. a form of marriage that joins one female with one
male
D. getting married in the same blood group
40.Providing education to the school, college and
street children on prevention of drug addiction is an example of - prevention.
A. primordial
B. tertiary
C. primary
D. secondary
Section : Nursing Foundations
41.Lack of oxygen in the blood stream is called:
A. Hypoxaemia
B. Cyanosis
C. Hypoxia
D. Anoxaemia
42.Under normal circumstances, concentration of oxygen
in inspired air is about _ percent.
A. 100
B. 6
C. 29
D. 21
43.As per Kubler-Ross' stages of grieving, refusing to
believe that loss is happening/has happened is called:
A. Bargaining
B. Denial
C. Acceptance
D. Depression
44.Which of the following organs is one of the primary
regulator of body fluid and electrolyte balance?
A. Intestine
B. Kidney
C. Stomach
D. Lungs
45.What is the approximate normal level of
haematocrit/packed cell volume in men?
A. 5 % to 15 %
B. 60 % to 70%
C. 40 % to 50 %
D. 20 % to 35 %
46.Which of the following tests need to be performed
before radial artery cannulation to evaluate radial and ulnar arterial patency?
A. Coop's test
B. Allen's test
C. Capillary refill test
D. Buergeor's test
47.A group of symptoms is known as:
A. Signs
B. Syndrome
C. clinical manifestations
D. group symptoms
48.Rhythmic waxing and waning of respiration is called:
A. Hypoventilation
B. Orthopnoea
C. Hyperventilation
D. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
49.A bedridden patient is having intact skin at the
sacral region, and the symptoms of warmness, pain and firm skin at the site.
What is the stage of bedsore?
A. Stage III
B. Stage 11
C. Stage 1
D. Stage IV
50.Following death, the subjective response
experienced by the surviving loved ones is called:
A. bereavement
B. mourning
C. compliance
D. grief
51.Which of the following electrolytes does insulin
help to move into the cells?
A. Bicarbonates
B. Chloride
C. Carbonates
D. Potassium
52. Temperature of 98.7 degree Fahrenheit is
approximately equal to _ degree Celsius.
A. 38.16
B. 37.56
C. 37.06
D. 36.52
53.Difference between systolic and diastolic blood
pressure is called:
A. pulse range
B. pulse length
C. pulse deficit
D. pulse pressure
54. Formula to calculate BMI is:
A. weight in kg divided by square of height in metres
B. weight in kg divided by height in feet
C. weight in kg divided by square of height in feet
D. weight in kg divided by height in metres
55.Which of the following equipment is used for the
examination of the ear?
A. Ophthalmoscope
B. Laryngoscope
C. Otoscope
D. Proctoscope
56.The specific gravity of the urine normally ranges
approximately from:
A. 1.8 to 2.0
B. 1.5 to 1.8
C. 0.75 to 1.00
D. 1.01 to 1.025
57.Insertion of a tube inside the stomach through the
nose is called nasogastric _.
A. Irrigation
B. Intubation
C. Extubation
D. Urigation
58.Intravenous solution of 0.45% sodium chloride is
a/an _ solution.
A. colloid
B. hypertonic
C. hypotonic
D. isotonic
59.__ is the process of introducing a disinfectant
solution to the internal environment of the body when someone passes away.
A. Embacterium
B. Revaccination
C. Embalming
D. Rinsing
60.__ enema is also called antispasmodic enema.
A. Cold
B. Carminative
C. Antihelminthic
D. Oil
61.HbA1c (glycated haemoglobin) value reflects the
blood glucose levels in the past ____months.
A. 1
B. 7
C. 3
D. 9
62. The sudden fall of temperature from high to normal
within a few hours is called:
A. Hypothermia
B. Lysis
C. True crisis
D. False crisis
63.In a healthy individual, weighing 70 kg at rest,
the stroke volume is about:
A. 150 ml
B. 100 ml
C. 50 ml
D. 70 ml
64.The fever in which temperature remains above normal
throughout the day and fluctuate more than 2 degree Fahrenheit is known as _
fever.
A. iysis
B. remittent
C. inverted
D. intermittent
65.The site of pulse in the neck is called:
A. Temporal
B. Radial
C. Carotid
D. Popliteal
66.The gradual decrease in body's temperature after
death is called:
A. stiff mortis
B. algor mortis
C. rigor mortis
D. livor mortis
67. The discolouration that appears in the dependent
areas of the body after death is called:
A. rigor mortis
B. livor mortis
C. algor mortis
D. stiff mortis
68.Kussmaul breathing is associated with:
A. Heart failure
B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Atelectasis
69. Absorptive dressings are intended to:
A. absorb nutrients for the wound
B. remove drainage from the bed sore
C. gather moisture from the atmosphere to keep the
wound cool
D. absorb blood from veins
70.Which of the following medication orders are for
every other day?
A. qod
B. qh
C. qd
D. bid
71.A patient is to receive 1000 mL of IV fluid in 6
hours. The drop factor is 15 drops per ml. At approximately how many drops per
minute should the flow rate be set?
A. 42 drops/min
B. 21 drops/min
C. 55 drops/min
D. 33 drops/min
72.In which of the following positions is the patient
at greatest risk of shearing force?
A. Semi-Fowler's position
B. Lying supine in bed
C. Trendelenburg position
D. High-Fowler's position
73. Movement of the joints away from the mid-line of
the body is called:
A. Addiction
B. Adhesion
C. Adduction
D. Abduction
74.What does the term Cheilosis mean?
A. Cracking of lips
B. Bad breath
C. Inflammation of the gums
D. Inflammation of the tongue
75. Breathing that is normal in rate and depth is
called:
A. bradypnoea
B. tachypnoea
C. apnoea
D. eupnoea
76.Stiffness in the body that occurs after 2 to 4 hrs
after death is called:
A. livor mortis
B. algor mortis
C. stiff mortis
D. rigor mortis
77.Which of the following is NOT an example of dry
cold application?
A. Cold compress
B. Ice pack
C. Ice cradle
D. Ice bag
78. The main intracellular cation is:
A. Zinc
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Halide
79.Inflammation of the oral mucosa is known as:
A. Gingivitis
B. Glossitis
C. Parotitis
D. Stomatitis
80.Which of the following medication orders is
administered immediately and only once?
A. Single order
B. PRN order
C. Stat order
D. Standing order
Section : Community Health Nursing
81.Koplik's spots are the clinical feature of:
A. Cholera
B. Chickenpox
C. Measles
D. Pertussis
82.One CHC covers a population of __in hilly areas.
A. 80000
B. 10000
C. 30000
D. 50000
83. The number of all current cases of a disease at
one point of time is called:
A. period prevalence
B. point incidence
C. point prevalence
D. time prevalence
84.In which year was the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima
Yojana (RSBY) introduced?
A. 2006
B. 2008
C. 2007
D. 2005
85.Hardness of water is expressed as:
A. PPL
B. mg/L
C. mEq/ML
D. mg%
86. The route of administration of hepatitis B vaccine
is:
A. Intramuscular
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intrathecal
D. Intradermal
87. The constant presence of a disease or infection
within a given geographic area is called:
A. Sporadic
B. Endemic
C. Pandemic
D. Epidemic
88. The denominator used to calculate crude birth rate
is:
A. school-going population
B. live births in that year
C. mid-year population in that year
D. population aged 18 years or above
89.What was the theme of World Health Day 2019?
A. Halt the rise: beat diabetes
B. Healthy heart beat: healthy blood pressure
C. Food safety
D. Universal health coverage: everyone, everywhere
90. What is the minimum contact time required for the
chlorination of water to take place?
A. 10 minutes
B. 90 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Section : Nutrition
91.Which of the following digestive enzymes present in
gastric juice is primarily responsible for breaking down proteins?
A. Trypsin
B. Pepsin
C. Peptidases
D. Chymotrypsin
92.Emulsification of lipids in the small intestine
requires:
A. gastric lipase
B. Pepsin
C. pancreatic lipase
D. bile salts
93.Which of the following nutrients provides energy to
the body?
A. Fat
B. Zinc
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin D
94.Which of the following is precursor to vitamin A?
A. Pyridoxine
B. Beta-carotene
C. Thiamine
D. Retinol
95.An average healthy person with no diseases should
ideally get _ of his/her daily calorie requirements from healthy fats.
A. 50 % to 60%
B. 70 % to 80 %
C. 20 % to 30 %
D. 5 % to 10 %
96.In which organ does the absorption of iron takes
place?
A. Colon
B. Duodenum in small intestine
C. Liver
D. Stomach
97.Vitamin B1 is also known as:
A. Pyridoxine
B. Thiamine
C. Riboflavin
D. Niacin
98.Which of the following trace elements is essential
for the synthesis of insulin?
A. Cobalt
B. Iron
C. Zinc
D. Sodium
99.Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
A. Niacin
B. Thiamine
C. Pyridoxine
D. Valine
100.Calories generated per gram of fat is
approximately:
A. 4 Kcals
B. 15 Kcals
C. 1 Kcals
D. 9 Kcals
Section : Medical Surgical Nursing
101.Which of the following drugs is a proton pump
inhibitor?
A. Ranitidine
B. Famotidine
C. Pantoprazole
D. Sucralfate
102.Diabetes insipidus is caused by the deficiency of
which of the following hormones?
A. Antidiuretic
B. Glucagon
C. Insulin
D. Renin
103. The name of the surgery in which there is removal
of duodenum, head of pancreas, gall bladder and bile ducts is called:
A. appendectomy
B. lumpectomy
C. discectomy
D. pancreatoduodenectomy
104.Bell's Palsy is a disorder of the_cranial nerve.
A. 3rd
B. 7th
C. 9th
D. 5th
105. The most common side effect of thrombolytic
therapy is:
A. metabolic abnormalities
B. internal bleeding
C. compartment syndrome
D. acute renal failure
106.Which type of solution causes water to shift from
the cells into the plasma?
A. Alkaline
B. Hypotonic
C. Acidic
D. Hypertonic
107.An individual with which of the following blood
groups is a universal donor?
A. A-ve
B. B +ve
C. AB +ve
D. O -ve
108. The loss of urine resulting from cognitive or
environmental factors is the manifestation of:
A. overflow incontinence
B. functional incontinence
C. urge incontinence
D. reflex incontinence
109.While assessing the level of consciousness of a
patient using Glasgow Coma Scale, which of the following score represents the
best motor response from the patient? A. 3
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
110.The loss of ability to recognise objects is
called:
A. Dysarthria
B. Alexia
C. Ataxia
D. Agnosia
111.Which of the following is glandular tissue cancer?
A. Liposarcoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Osteogenic sarcoma
112. The cell-mediated immunity is carried out by:
A. Red blood cells
B. T lymphocytes
C. B lymphocytes
D. CD4 cells
113. The lateral S-shaped curvature of the spine is
called:
A. Scoliosis
B. Musculosis
C. Kyphosis
D. Lordosis
114.__ is a radiological examination using a minimal
and safe amount of radiation to allow visualisation of breast masses.
A. Computed tomography scan
. Lymphangiogram
C. Angiogram
D. Mammogram
115.Barium enema is used mainly for radiological
examination of the:
A. brain
B. colon
C. heart
D. oral cavity
116.While doing colostomy irrigation, the height of
the irrigation bag should be around:
A. 18 inches
B. 24 inches
C. 12 inches
D. 36 inches
117.Which one of the following procedures is used to
correct otosclerosis?
A. Myringoplasty
B. Myringotomy
C. Mastoidectomy
D. Stapedectomy
118.The term pyrosis is related to:
A. Heartburn
B. Pus formation
C. Dysphagia
D. Dyspepsia
119.The drugs used to constrict the pupils are:
A. mydriatics
B. sulphonamides
C. antibiotics
D. miotics
120.Which of the following parts of an eye alters the
size of the pupil to regulate the amount of light entering the eye?
A. Lens
B. Cornea
C. Retina
D. Iris
121. The type of incontinence in which there is
constant dribbling of urine and is associated with urinating frequently and in
small amount is called:
A. overflow incontinence
B. stress incontinence
C. functional incontinence
D. urge incontinence
122.Using the 'rule of nine', estimated burn size in
an adult having burn injury to chest and stomach is _ per cent.
A. 18
B. 27
C. 36
D. 9
123.Which among the following is a colloid solution?
A. 0.9 % normal saline
B. dextran
C. 0.45 % normal saline
D. 25 % dextrose
124. Which of the following results from severe
allergic reaction producing overwhelming systemic vasodilation and relative
hypovolaemia?
A. Hypovolaemic shock
B. Anaphylactic shock
C. Neurogenic shock
D. Septic shock
125.Which of the following enzymes converts fats into
fatty acids and glycerol?
A. Bile
B. Trypsinogen
C. Salivary amylase
D. Lipase
126.The movement of particles from region of higher
concentration to region of lower concentration is called:
A. Diffusion
B. Filtration
C. Osmosis
D. Hydrolysis
127.In acute pancreatitis, the levels of which of the
following enzymes remain elevated for 7-14 days?
A. Urine amylase
B. Serum amylase
C. Serum alkylane phosphatase
D. Serum lipase
128.Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of
interstitial cystitis (IC)?
A. Frequency
B. Incontinence
C. Urgency
D. Pelvis pain
129. The disease that occurs due to the defect in the
genes of one or other parent and is transmitted to the offspring is known as _
disease/disorder.
A. congenital
B. organic
C. hereditary
D. allergic
130. Tonometry is the method of measuring the:
A. pressure inside the lungs
B. pressure inside the ear
C. intraocular pressure
D. blood pressure
131.Haemophilia is associated with:
A. Chromosome 11
B. Y chromosome
C. Chromosome 21
D. X chromosome
132.After a renal transplant, the rejection that
occurs within minutes is called:
A. hyper acute rejection
B. chronic rejection
C. acute rejection
D. sub-acute rejection
133.Which of the following drugs is used for the
dilation of pupil?
A. Tropicamide
B. Betamethasone
C. Levofloxacin
D. Gentamicin
134.What is the minimum possible score of Glasgow Coma
Scale?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
D. O
135. The voice box is known as:
A. Larynx
B. Diaphragm
C. Bronchioles
D. Pharynx
136. The most serious complication of deep vein
thrombosis (DVT) is a blockage known as
A. formation of venous ulcers
B. chronic occlusion of veins
C. gangrenous development of veins
D. pulmonary embolism
137.Painful swallowing is known as:
A. dysphasia
B. odynophagia
C. ataxia
D. dyspepsia
138. The antidote of warfarin is:
A. Protamine sulphate
B. Vitamin K
C. Heparin
D. Acetyl cysteine
139. The most common lung cancer seen in non-smokers
is:
A. small cell carcinoma
B. adenocarcinoma
C. large cell carcinoma
D. squamous cell carcinoma
140. The presence of stones in the urinary tract is
called:
A. Kideneylithiasis
B. Stonelithiasis
C. Urolithiasis
D. Cholelithiasis
Section : Psychiatric Nursing
141. The act of purging or purification of emotions is
called:
A. Compulsion
B. Catharsis
C. Cataplexy
D. Confabulation
142.Which of the following is expected in a patient
who is diagnosed with an organic mental disorder?
A. Intact memory
B. Appropriate behaviour
C. Disorganisation of thoughts
D. Orientation to person, place and time
143.According to Erikson's eight stages of
development, initiative vs. guilt takes place at:
A. 20 – 25 years
B. 10 - 15 years
C. 13 – 19 years
D. 3 – 5 years
144.Which of the following is NOT a sign/symptom of
the obsessivecompulsive disorder?
A. No fear of self-harm
B. Fear of germs or dirt
C. Obsessive thoughts
D. Compulsive acts
145.Which one of the following is derived from the
plant 'Cannabis Sativa'?
A. Cocaine
B. Morphine
C. Ganja
D. Opium
146.False sensory perception without real external
stimulus is known as:
A. Hallucination
B. Illusions
C. Delusions
D. Thought insertion
147.A patient admitted in the psychiatric ward refused
to eat her lunch stating that the food is poisoned. This kind of response is an
example of:
A. Hallucination
B. Sympathy
C. Illusions
D. Delusions
148.The La Belle indifference is related to:
A. Conversion reaction
B. Obsession compulsions disorder
C. Anxiety disorder
D. Phobic anxiety
149. The disulphiram therapy is indicated in:
A. Acute intoxication
B. Cannabis dependence
C. Anxiety disorder
D. Chronic alcoholism
150.A person suffering from _, a severe anxiety
disorder, is able to speak freely with certain people only and is not able to
speak with others, especially with certain social groups such as classmates at
school.
A. Mutism
B. Aphasia
C. Selective mutism
D. Epilepsy
Section : Midwifery and Gynaecological
Nursing
151.Ovulation in a female with a 36 days cycle occurs
between:
A. 30th - 34th day
B. 14th – 18th day
C. 8th – 12th day
D. 20th – 24th day
152. The condition where the uterus turns inside out is
called:
A. Uterine Inversion
B. Prolapse
C. Anteversion
D. Retroversion
153. The graphical record of maternal and foetal data
against time during labour on a single sheet of paper is called:
A. Ultrasonogram
B. Tocogram
C. Cardiotocogram
D. Partogram
154. The most common genital prolapse is:
A. Rectocoele
B. Cystocoele
C. Procidentia
D. Enterocoele
155. The first stage of labour is characterised by:
A. crowning of the head
B. expulsion of the foetus till the placenta
C. dilatation of cervix
D. delivery of the placenta
156. The length of the fallopian tube ranges from:
A. 22-27 cm
B. 7-12 cm
C. 28-31 cm
D. 2-7 cm
157. The shape of the brim in anthropoid pelvis is:
A. triangular with base towards sacrum
B. square
C. well-rounded
D. oval
158. The suture that separates the parietal bone from
the tabular portion of the occipital bone is called:
A. Lambdoidal suture
B. Frontal suture
C. Sagittal suture
D. Coronal suture
159.Urine formation usually begins towards the end of
the _ and continues throughout foetal life.
A. 3-5 weeks
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 21-22 weeks
D. 11-12 weeks
160. The settling of foetal head into the brim of the
pelvis is called:
A. Crowning of head
B. Lightening
C. Engagement
D. Descent
161. Which of the following is the common site of
fertilization?
A. Interstitial
B. Isthmic
C. Ampulla
D. Infundibulum
162.At about _ of gestation, the height of the uterus
is at the level of umbilicus.
A. 6-8 weeks
B. 3 – 5 weeks
C. 20 - 22 weeks
D. 10 - 12 weeks
163. The ovarian cycle is initiated by:
A. Progesterone
B. Follicle stimulating hormone
C. Endorphins
D. OeEstrogen
164. The most common cause of nonengagement at term in
primigravida is:
A. Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)
B. Breech presentation
C. Hydramnios
D. Brow presentation
165.What is the correct sequence of mitosis?
A. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
B. Anaphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase
C. Telophase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
D. Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
166. The uterine fibroid is associated with:
A. Endometriosis
B. Amenorrhoea
C. Ovarian cancer
D. PID
167.Inflammation of the fallopian tube is called:
A. Endometritis
B. Vaginitis
C. Salpingitis
D. Cervicitis
168. The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is:
A. ampullary region in the fallopian tube
B. Cervix
C. Abdomen
D. Ovary
169. The darkening of the skin over the forehead,
bridge of nose or cheekbones during pregnancy is called:
A. Chloasma
B. Chadwick's sign
C. Hegar's sign
D. Linea nigrea
170. The approximate average weight of placenta at
birth is:
A. 300 g
B. 400 g
C. 508 g
D. 600 g
171.Which of the following hormones is increased in
Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome?
A. 17-OH progesterone
B. Luteinising Hormone (LH)
C. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
D. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
172. The early puerperium extends:
A. until twelve weeks of postpartum
B. up to first year of delivery
C. until the thirteen weeks of postpartum
D. until the first week of postpartum
173.Which one of the following is seen in
preeclampsia?
A. Facial hair
B. Hypotension
C. Weight loss
D. Proteinuria
174.A normal umbilical cord contains:
A. one artery and five veins
B. two arteries and one vein
C. five arteries and two veins
D. two arteries and ten veins
175.Oxygenated blood from placenta returns to the
foetus via the _.
A. Superior vena cava
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Umbilical vein
D. Ductus arteriosus
176.Post-term pregnancy is a pregnancy which continues
beyond:
A. 294 days
B. 250 days
C. 200 days
D. 170 days
177.What is the ideal average newborn's head circumference
at birth?
A. 75 cm
B. 35 cm
C. 55 cm
D. 15 cm
178.Which of the following indicates relationship of
long axis of the foetus to that of mother?
A. Foetal lie
B. Foetal presentation
C. Foetal attitude
D. Foetal position
179. The outer most membrane of placenta is called:
A. Yolk sac
B. Chorion
C. Amnion
D. Meningitis
180.Peg cells are seen in the:
A. Intestine
B. Fallopian tubes
C. Stomach
D. Vagina
181. Which of the following is the most important
tumour marker to diagnose carcinoma of ovary?
A. Serum human chorionic gonadotropin
B. CA 125
C. Human placental lactogen
D. Serum alpha fetoprotein
182. The onset of menstruation is called:
A. Menopause
B. Menarche
C. Andropause
D. Ovarian cycle
183.Of the 6-7 million oocytes available, how many are
released during ovulation?
A. 3000 to 4000
B. 400 to 500
C. 2000 to 3000
D. 100 to 200
184.During the active phase of labour, the cervical
dilatation per hour in primigravidas is approximately
A. 1.2 cm
B. 1.9 cm
C. 2.3 cm
D. 2.5 cm
185. The correct sequence of development of puberty in
girls is:
A. Menarche, Pubarche, Thelarche
B. Thelarche, Pubarche, Menarche
C. Thelarche, Menarche, Pubarche
D. Pubarche, Menarche, Thelarche
186.Postpartum haemorrhage is the condition in which
there is loss of more than _ ml vaginal blood.
A. 100
B. 50
C. 10
D. 500
187.The normal APGAR score of a new born is:
A. 7 and above
B. 3 to 4
C. 4 to 6
D. below 3
188.Which of the following is NOT a feature of HELLP
syndrome?
A. Raised liver enzymes
B. Eosinophilia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Haemolytic anaemia
189. The first perception of active foetal movement
felt by the mother during pregnancy is known as:
A. Engagement
B. Hastening
C. Quickening
D. Lightening
190. The manoeuver commonly used to manage shoulder
dystocia is:
A. Rossete Manoeuver
B. MacRobert's Manoeuver
C. Jeff Marshal Manoeuver
D. McMilan Manoeuver
Section : Paediatric Nursing
191.Which of the following is the most common cause of
ophthalmic neonatorum?
A. Candida albicans
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Neisseria gonorrhoea
D. Streptococcus
192.Which of the following is NOT a part of the
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
A. Patent Ductus Arteriosus
B. Right ventricular hypertrophy
C. Over-riding of Aorta
D. Pulmonary stenosis
193.An injury to the upper brachial plexus results in:
A. Facial palsy
B. Phrenic nerve palsy
C. Klimke's palsy
D. Erb's palsy
194.Which of the following is the ideal age for
closure of the anterior fontanel of a child?
A. 18 to 24 months
B. 6 to 8 months
C. 6 to 8 weeks
D. 18 to 24 weeks
195.Which of the following is NOT a complication of
measles?
A. Laryngitis
B. Conjunctivitis
C. Atrial Septal Defect
D. Encephalitis
196. The most common type of leukaemia seen in
children is:
A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia (ALL)
B. Chronic Lymphoid Leukaemia (CHL)
C. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML)
D. Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)
197.Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic
of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?
A. Inattention
B. Impulsivity
C. Difficulty in eating
D. Overactivity
198.Which of the following is NOT a clinical
manifestations of Trisomy 21?
A. Flat nasal bridge
B. Protruding tongue
C. Long hands and fingers
D. Small nose
199.Which of the following conditions can result in a
hairy patch on the back of children?
A. Epilepsy
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Spina bifida occulta
D. Ricket
200.The Baby-friendly Hospital Initiative (BFHI) was
launched jointly by:
A. WHO and Red Cross
B. WHO and FAO
C. UNICEF and WHO
D. UNICEF and FAO
Answers
1.A
2.D 3.A 4.B 5.D
6.D 7.D 8.C 9.D 10.A
11.A 12.C 13.A 14.D 15.D
16.D 17.C 18.A 19.C 20.B
21.C 22.A 23.D 24.C 25.D
26.A 27.B 28.B 29.C 30.B
31.A 32.A 33.B 34.B 35.C
36.C 37.C 38.C 39.A 40.A
41.A 42.D 43.B 44.B 45.C
46.B 47.B 48.D 49.C 50.A
51.D 52.C 53.D 54.A 55.C
56.D 57.B 58.C 59.C 60.B
61.C 62.C 63.D 64.B 65.C
66.B 67.B 68.B 69.B 70.A
71.A 72.D 73.D 74.A 75.D
76.D 77.A 78.C 79.D 80.C
81.C 82.A 83.C 84.B 85.B
86.A 87.B 88.C 89.D 90.D
91.B 92.D 93.A 94.B 95.C
96.B 97.B 98.C 99.D 100.D
101.C
102.A 103.D 104.B 105.B
106.D 107.D 108.B 109.D 110.D
111.B 112.B 113.A 114.D 115.B
116.A 117.D 118.A 119.D 120.D
121.A 122.A 123.B 124.B 125.D
126.A 127.D 128.B 129.C 130.C
131.D 132.A 133.A 134.A 135.A
136.D 137.B 138.B 139.B 140.C
141.B 142.C 143.D 144.A 145.C
146.A 147.D 148.A 149.D 150.C
151.D 152.A 153.A 154.B 155C.
156.B 157.D 158.A 159.D 160.B
161.C 162.C 163.B 164.A 165.A
166.A 167.C 168.A 169.A 170.C
171.B 172.D 173.D 174.B 175.C
176.A 177.B 178.A 179.B 180.B
181.B 182.B 183.B 184.A 185.B
186.D 187.A 188.B 189.C 190.B
191.C 192.A 193.D 194.A 195.C
196.A 197.C 198.C 199.C 200.C
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