BHU Nursing Exam Paper 2018 with Answer
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1 Nasal Cannula is used for :
(1). Oxygen administration
(2). Clearance of secretions
(3). Feeding milk
(4). Both (1) & (2)
2. Which drug is given through nebulization as well as
the intravenous route?
(1) Salbutamal
(2) Budesonide
(3) 3%NaCl
(4) Hydrocartisone
3. Phototherapy is used for the treatment of:
(1) Cyanosis
(2) Jaundice
(3) Diarrhoea
(4) Eczema
4. Exclusive breastfeeding is given up to :
(1) 4 months
(2) 6 months
(3) 9 months
(4) 12 months
5. A loose cuff of BP Instrument gives :
(1) Accurate reading
(2) Falsely higher reading
(3) Falsely lower reading BP
(4) No effect on reading
6.Diuretics are given at what time?
(1) Morning
(2) Noon
(3) Evening
(4) Night
7.Mattress used for Patient care should be :
(1) Thick and Hard
(2) Thin and Soft.
(3) Thick and Firm
(4) Thin and Elastic
8. The body part to be pressed after intramuscular injection with which
substance?
(1) Dry Cotton Swab
(2) Wet Cotton Swab
(3) Spirit Cotton Swab
(4) Povidone-Iodine Cotton Swab
9. Subcutaneous injection is given at which angle ?
(1) 15°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 90°
10. Which is incorrectly matched in relation to temperature of solution?
(1) Cleaning purpose – 104°F
(2) Thermal effect – 110-115°F
(3) Reducing temperature – 80-90°F
(4) Gastric lavage – 70-80°F
11. Pre-operative preparation of skin is done by application of which
substan ?
(1) Hydrogen peroxide
(2) Mupirocin
(3) 2% Gluteraldehyde
(4) 70% Alcohol
12. Temperature of water for ‘Sitz Bath’ is :
(1) 30-34°C
(2) 37-39°C
(3) 43-46°C
(4) 48
13. ICD-X classification’ is used in :
(1) Central Sterile Supply Department
(CSSD)
(2) Operation Theatre
(3) Medical Record Department
(4) Blood Bank
14. Which substance is used in Fumigation ?
(1) Potassium Permanganate
(2) Hydrogen Peroxide
(3) Bleaching Powder
(4) Povidone Idoine
15. Human anatornical organs are kept in which coloured container in
Biomedical Waste Disposal ?
(1) Red
(2) Yellow
(3) White
(4) Blue
16. Sodium flupride vial is used for measurement of which
substance in blood ?
(1) Glucose
(2) urea
(3) Hb1 Ac
(4) Hematocrit
17. Enema is given in which position of patient?
(1) Supine
(2) Prone
(3) Right lateral
(4) Left lateral
18. Normally Intercostal drainage
tube is kept for how many days?
(1) 1-2
(2) 3-5
(3) 5-10
(4) 10-15
19. Which fluid is given in ’hypovolemic shock’ ?
(1) 5% Dextrose
(2) 0.9% NaCl
(3) 5% Dextrose NaCl
(4) 10% Dextrose
20.Choose the correct matching :
(1) T-Piece – Airway adjunct
(2) Mackintosh – CO2 detector
(3) Kidney tray – Blood storage
(4) Pulse Oximeter – Recording of Pulse rate
21. Which gauge diameter of needle is used for ’intradermal
injection’ ?
(1) 21
(2) 23
(3) 24
(4) 26
22.Vitamin K injection in newborn is given at
which site?
(1)Right Deltoid
(2) Left Deltoid
(3)Mid Thigh
(4) Buttock
23. ‘Pneumatic Bed’ is used for prevention of :
(1) Tongue injury
(2) Bed Sore
(3) Muscular contracture
(4) Foot abscess
24. The difference between rectal and oral temperature is by :
(1) 1 F
(2) 2°F
(3) 0.5°F
(4) 1°C
25. The landmark for measuring the length of nasogastric tube
is :
(1) Nose-Epigastrium
(2) Tragus-Epigastrium
(3) Nose-Tragus-Epigastrium
(4) Mammary line-Epigastrium
26. One of the primary nursing objectives in a client with a CVA is the
maintenance of the airway. To achieve this objective the nurse should initially
place the client in the:
(1) Prone position
(2) Lareral position
(3) Supine position
(4) Trendelenburg position
27. An accurate blood pressure of a client can be obtained by :
(1) A cuff that covers the upper
one-third of the client’s arm
(2) Positioning the cuff approximately 4″ above the antecubital space
(3) Use of cuff that is wide enough to cover two-thirds of the
client’s arm
(4) Identify the ‘Korotkoff sounds’ and take
a systolic reading at 10 mmHg after the first sound.
28. A client develops a temperature of 102 degrees Fahrenheit (38.8
degrees Celsius), following open-heart surgery. The nurse notifies the
physician because the elevated temperature indicates:
(1) An increase in the cardiac output
(2) Cerebral edema
(3) A forerunner of hemorrhage
(4) Possible diaphoresis and chilling
29. The most common cause of
spontaneous abortion is :
(1) Physical trauma
(2) Unresolved stress
(3) Congenital defects
(4) Germplasm defects
30. When a nurse sees a baby in respiratory distress from apparent
mucus, the first nursing action is to :
(1) Carefully slap the infant’s back
(2) Thump the chest and start cardiopulmonary resuscitation
(3) Pick the baby up by the feet
(4) Call the core team
31. When performing a colostomy irrigation the nurse inserts
the catheter into the ‘ stoma upto :
(1) 5 cm (2 inches)
(2) 10 cm (4 inches)
(3) 15 cm (6 inches)
(4) 20 cm (8 inches)
32. While administering an enema the maximum safe height at which the
container of fluid can be held is :
(1) 30 cm (12 inch)
(2) 32.5 cm
(3) 45 cm
(4) 66 cm BHU Nursing Exam Paper
33. Infection from retention catheters can best be prevented by
(1) Cleansing the perineum
(2) Encouraging adequate fluid
(3) Irrigating the catheter once daily
(4) Cleansing around the meatus periodically
34. Radiation therapy for cancer of the prostate may cause bladder
irritability, a sign of this complication would probably be :
(1) Dysuria
(2) Polyuria
(3) Dribbling
(4) Hematuria
35. Soon after the admission of a client to the hospital with head
injuries, the temperature rises to 102.2 degrees Fahrenheit (39 degrees
Celsius). The suggests injury to the :
(1) Pallidum
(2) Thalamus
(3) Temporal lobe
(4) Hypothalamus
36. Diabetes insipidus’ is a deficiency of which hormone ?
(1) Atrial natriuretic peptide
(2) Vasopressin
(3) Aldosterone
(4)insulin
37. The agency which has been supporting the national tuberculosis
control program – of India is :
(1) IRCS
(2) SIDA
(3) DANIDA
(4) UNICEF
38.Which of the following is not a primary prevention ?
(1) Pulse polio immunization
(2) Vitamin A supplementation
(3) Breast self-examination for tumor
(4) Isoniazid (INH) to a baby breastfed by sputum positive
Tubercular mother
39. The ’coronary care unit’ nurse draws an arterial blood sample to
assess a client for acidosis. A normal pH of arterial blood is :
(1) 7.0
(2) 7.42
(3) 7.30
(4) 7.50
40. Following surgery for repair of an inguinal hernia, the nurse
establishes a postoperative fluid intake goal for the client. The most
appropriate amount would be:
(1) 500-700 mL/day
(2) 1000-1500 mL/day
(3) 2000-3000 mL/day
(4) 3000-3500 mL/day
41. Which gauge diameter of needle is
used for intradermal injection?
(1) 21
(2) 23
(3) 24
(4) 26
42. Doses of Vitamin-A solution :
(1) 2,00,000 IU
(2) 2,30,000 IU
(3) 5,00,000 IU BHU Nursing Exam Paper
(4) 1,50,000 IU
43. “Avulsed teeth” should be placed in
(1) Normal saline.
(2) Coldwater
(3) Milk
(4) Warm water
44. How many bones makes up a newborn skull ?
(I) 8
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 5
45. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should
inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is :
(l) 8 to 12 months of age
(2) 20 to 24 months of age
(3) 16 to 20 months of age
(4) 12 to 16 months of age
46. Indian Nursing Council was established in the year :
(1) 1848
(2) 1950
(3) 1923
(4) 1947
47. A clinical situation in which the increased release of
erythropoietin would be, expected is :
(1) Hypoxemia
(2) Hypotension
(3) Hyperkalemia
(4) Fluid overload
48. A priority nursing intervention for the care of a terminally ill
patient diagnosed with metastatic cancer is :
(1) Maintaining bowel function
(2) Alleviating and relieving pain
(3) Preventing respiratory arrest
(4) Managing chemotherapy
49. A client with COPD has ‘secondary polycythemia’ the nursing
diagnoses that would be included in the care plan is :
(1) Fluid volume deficit related to
blood loss
(2) Impaired tissue perfusion related to thrombosis
(3) Activity intolerance related to dyspnea
(4) The risk for infection related to suppressed immune response
50. A blood transfusion should be started at how many macro-drops per
minute and for how long time ?
(1) 25-50 drops for 15 mins.
(2) 20 drops 10 mins.
(3) 25 – 50 drops for 15 mins.
(4) 120 drops for 15 mins.
51. Which of the following IUDs belongs to GPU IUDs ?
(1) Cu-T-200
(2) Lippes Loop
(3) Cu-T-380 A
(4) ML-250
52. Janani Suraksha Yojna has been started as under :
(1) CSSM
(2) NRHM
(3) MCH
(4) ICDS BHU Nursing Exam Paper
53. When administering an IM injection to an infant, the nurse should
use which site?
(1) Deltoid
(2) Dorsoglutea!
(3) Ventrogluteal
(4) Vastus lateralis
54 Side effect of Haemophilus influenzae is :
(1) Generalized rash
(2) Urticaria
(3) Lethargy
(4) Low-grade fever
55. A client with a ventroperitoneal VP shunt present with a
sign and symptoms of restlessness, headache, blurred vision, body ache, and
wide pulse, pressure, the nurse should suspect the child has :
(1) Brain tumor
(2) Increase intracranial pressure
(3) Loss of consciousness
(4) Sleep pattern disturbance
56 Reduce speech production is termed as :
(1) Poverty of speech
(2) Mutism
(3) Poverty of ideation
(4) Echolalia
57. One of the complication of hyperemesis gravidarum is :
(1) Increased vomiting
(2) Dehydration
(3) Korsakoffs psychosis
(4) Low blood pressure
58. A nurse is assessing a client with ‘pregnancy induced hypertension,
the nurse expects the client blood pressure to be
(1) 150/100 mmHg while standing and
sitting
(2) Elevated and accompanied by a headache
(3) Above the baseline and fluctuating at each reading
(4) 30/15 mmHg over the baseline on two occasions six
hours apart
59. Which immunity is affected by HIV infection ?
(1) Natural immunity
(2) Active immunity
(3) Cellular immunity ‘
(4) Humoral immunity
60. Multi-Drug Resistant (MDR) tuberculosis
treatment involve all drugs except:
(1) Kanamycin
(2) Pyrazinamide
(3) Rifampicin
(4) Ethambutol
61. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis
infection in the community is :
(1) Sputum examination
(2) Mass miniature radiography
(3) Tuberculin Test
(4) Clinical Examination
62. Mini-mental status examination does not include :
(1) Cognition
(2) Perception
(3) Insight
(4) History of psychiatric disorder
63- Prophylactic dose of Folic Acid in pregnancy is .
(1) 500 microgram
(2) 1 mg
(3) 2 mg
(4) 4 mg
64. Sunken fontanelle is a sign of
(1)
Down syndrome
(2) Nephrotic syndrome
(3) Turner syndrome
(4) Dehydration
65. Weight of placenta is :
(1) 50 gm
(2) 200 gm
(3) 450 gm
(4) 500 gm
66. Which of the following drugs is used to treat
postoperative shivering
(1) Ondansetron
(2) Diclofenac Sodium
(3) Pethidine
(4) Paracetamol
67. Prostaglandin analogues are used
in
(1) Induction of labour
(2) Induction of abortion
(3) Management of PPH
(4) All the above
68. ’APGAR Score’ is a measure of all except:
(1) Respiratory status
(2) Neurological status
(3) Nephrological status
(4) Circulatory status
69. Which is the most frequently used gas for laparoscopy ?
(1) Carbon dioxide
(2) Helium
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Oxygen
70. What is to be addressed first in a case of polytrauma ?
(1) Circulation
(2) Blood pressure,
(3) Airway
(4) Neurology
71. For MTP, consent is taken from :
(1) Wife only
(2) Husband only
(3) Both
(4) None
72. What is the average weight gain of the neonate per day ?
(1) 25-30 gm
(2) 25-30 gm
(3) 50 – 60 gm
(4) 100-150 gm
73. Breast milk is rich in all except:
(1) Lactose
(2) PUFA
(3) Sodium
(4) Lactalbumin
74. All of the following are part of treatment of Scabies, except:
(1) Topical Permethrin
(2) Oral Ivermectin
(3) Oral antihistaminics
(4) Long term oral steroids
75. Mouth to mouth respiration provides what percentage of Oxygen ?
(1) 10
(2) 16
(3) 21
(4) 100 BHU Nursing Exam Paper
76. Heat Stroke is :
(1) Heat cramps
(2) Heat collapse
(3) Heat exhaustion
(4) Heat hyperthermia
77. True about ‘dying declaration’ is :
(1) More important than dying
deposition
(2) Can be taken in the presence of Magistrate only
(3) Taken in presence of two witnesses
(4) Has to be taken under oath
78. Most common nosocomial infection is :
(1) S. aureus
(2) Pseudomonas
(3) Listeria
(4) S. pyogenes
79. Which is the complication of blood transfusion ?
(1) Hyponatremia
(2) Hyperkalemia
(3) Hypercalcemia
(4) Increased Serum Albumin
80. Pre-anesthetic medication is given to : ‘
(1) Reduce anxiety and fear
(2) Reduction of secretion of saliva
(3) Prevent undesirable reflexes
(4) All of the above
81. HIV post-exposure prophylaxis should be started within :
(1) 1-2 hours
(2) 14 hours
(3) 18 hours
(4) 72 hours
82. Which vitamin deficiency occurs in patients taking first line anti
tubercular drugs ?
(1) Niacin
(2) Pyridoxine
(3) Ascorbate
(4) Thiamine
83. Snellen’s Chart is read from a distance of:
(l) 6 feet
(2) 14 feet
(3) 20 feet
(4) 24 feet
84.Significant weight loss is :
(1) 5% over 6 to 12 months
(2) 10% over 6 to 12 months
(3) 5% over 6 weeks
(4) 10% over 6 weeks
85. Most common ‘shock’ in children is:
(1) Hypovolemic
(2) Cardiogenic
(3) Septic
(4) Neurogenic
86. Most common site for ’atopic dermatitis’ is :
(1) Scalp
(2) Trunk
(3) Popliteal fossa
(4) Knees
87. Which is a topical way of drug administration ?
(1) Inhaled steroid
(2) Transdermal patch
(3) Sublingual NTG
(4) Rectal Diazepam
88. Correct order in labor is :
(i) Flexion
(ii) Crowing
(iii) External rotation
(iv) Restitution
(1) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i)
(4) (ii)-(iv)-(i)-(iii)
89. Treatment of severe dehydration is :
(1) Start colloids immediately
(2) Start Ringer’s Lactate immediately
(3) Combination of 5% Dextrose with Ringer’s Lactate
(4) Start DNS immediately
90. Route of DPT vaccine is :
(1) Oral
(2) Subcutaneous
(3) Intramuscular
(4) Intravenous
91. Kangaroo Mother Care – which of the following is ti lie ?
(1) Can be done by father also
(2) Indicated for LBW babies
(3) Effective thermal control All of the above
(4) All of the above
92. Propulsive stage in labor in multipara is :
(1) 10 min
(2) 20 min
(3) 40 min BHU Nursing Exam Paper
(4) 1 hour
93. Drug not given in pregnancy is :
(1) Inhibitors
(2) Penicillin
(3) Methyldopa
(4)Labetalol
94. Most common cause of ‘acute otitis media’ is:
(1) H. influenzae
(2) S. pneumoniae
(3) S. aureus
(4) Pseudomonas
95. Zinc deficiency is characterized by all except:
(1) Poor vision
(2) Diarrhoea
(3) Dermatitis
(4) Hypogonadism
96. Which of the following types of shock will usually have warm
peripheral extremities?
(1) Hypovolemic
(2) Neurogenic
(3) Cardiogenic
(4) Anaphylactic
97. Potassium content of Ringer’s Lactate (m mol /L) is :
(1) 130
(2) 109
(3) 4
(5) 50
98.Antibiotic prophylaxis is best given :
(1) 1 day before surgery
(2) 2 hours before surgery
(3) Before the time of incision
(4) Only postoperatively
99. Anti tubercular drug which makes the patient non-infective earliest
is :
(1) INH
(2) Rifampicin
(3) Ethambutol
(4) Pyrazinamide
100. Vertical transmission is seen with which type of Hepatitis ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) E
(4) C
Answers
1.1 2.3 3.2 4.2 5.2
6.1 7.3 8.1 9.3 10.4
11.4 12.3 13.3 14.1 15.2
16.1 17.4 18.2 19.2 20.1
21.4 22.3 23.2 24.1 25.3
26.2 27.3 28.1 29.4 30.3
31.2 32.3 33.4 34.1 35.4
36.2 37.3 38.3 39.2 40.3
41.4 42.1 43.3 44.4 45.1
46.4 47.1 48.2 49.2 50.3
51.4 52.2 53.4 54.2 55.2
56.2 57.3 58.4 59.3 60.3
61.1 62.4 63.1 64.4 65.4
66.3 67.4 68.3 69.1 70.3
71.1 72.2 73.3 74.4 75.2
76.4 77.2 78.1 79.2 80.4
81.1 82.2 83.3 84.1 85.1
86.3 87.1 88.2 89.2 90.3
91.4 92.2 93.1 94.2 95.1
96.2 97.3 98.3 99.1 100.2
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