KPSC Junior Public Health Nurse (PHN) Exam Nov 2020

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 KPSC Junior Public Health Nurse (PHN) Exam Nov 2020

1. Drug-kit B is given at

A) PHC

B) Sub center

C) CHC

D) FRU

 

2. International AIDS day is celebrated on ____________ every year.

A) 1 May

B) 7 April

C) 11 April

D) 1 December

 

3. Who is the Chairman of Health Survey and Planning Committee ?

A) A. L. Mudaliar

B) M. S. Chadha

C) A. K. Mukherji

D) Joseph Bore

 

4. Principles of health education include all Except

A) Participation

B) Motivation

C) Punishment

D) Reinforcement

 

5. Census is conducted in every ____________ years in India.

A) 25

B) 15

C) 10

D) 20

 

6. ASHA is recruited under

A) NRHM

B) National Urban Health Mission

C) ICDS

D) Village Health System

 

7. The most common side effect of IUD insertion is

A) Pain

B) Bleeding

C) Pelvic infection

D) Ectopic pregnancy

 

8. MMR vaccine is given at

A) Birth

B) 9 months

C) 5 years

D) 18 months

 

9. Diagnosis of TB according to DOTS is

A) 2 out of 3 samples positive

B) 3 out of 4 samples positive

C) 1 out of 2 samples positive

D) None of the above

 

 

10. According to Maternal Health Programme, the daily dose of folic acid for pregnant woman should be

A) 100 mcg

B) 200 mcg

C) 300 mcg

D) 400 mcg

 

11. Which of the following vaccine is not administered at birth ?

A) Hib

B) OPV

C) BCG

D) Hepatitis B

 

12. DMPA is an injectable contraceptive given every

A) 3 weeks

B) 3 months

C) 2 months

D) 2 years

 

13. Toxic shock syndrome is due to which vaccine ?

A) Mumps

B) Tetanus

C) Salk

D) Measles

 

14. Minimum gap that should be allowed in between to administer two live vaccines is

A) 2 weeks

B) 2 months

C) 4 weeks

D) 4 months

 

15. GOBI Campaign of the UNICEF includes all Except

A) Observation

B) Breast feeding

C) Immunization

D) Growth monitoring

 

16. Which is the best determinant of the health status of a community ?

A) Crude death rate

B) Infant mortality rate

C) Maternal mortality rate

D) Early neonatal deaths

 

17. Zero incidence is

A) Elimination of disease

B) Eradication of disease

C) Elimination of infection

D) Eradication of infection

 

 

18. Micro nutrients includes

A) Proteins

B) Minerals

C) Fats

D) Water

 

19. Pellagra is due to the deficiency of

A) Niacin

B) Pyridoxine

C) Riboflavin

D) Thiamine

 

20. A person with Body Mass Index of 18.5 – 25 belongs to the category of

A) Normal weight

B) Under weight

C) Over weight

D) Obese

 

21. Which of the following is an example for food adulteration ?

A) Mixing of folic acid with bread

B) Mixing of iodine with salt

C) Mixing of papaya seeds with pepper

D) Mixing of iron in wheat flour

 

22. Smallest bone situated in the middle ear is

A) Stapes

B) Malleus

C) Atlas

D) Incus

 

23. Inflammation of gum is called

A) Stomatitis

B) Gingivitis

C) Glossitis

D) Uveitis

 

24. Total number of canines in human oral cavity

A) Eight

B) Ten

C) Six

D) Four

 

25. Outer layer of the heart wall is

A) Myocardium

B) Perichondrium

C) Pericardium

D) Periosteum

 

26. Type of mosquito transmitting malaria

A) Anopheles

B) Aedes

C) Culicine

D) Mansonia

 

 

27. Instrument used to calculate the amount of bleaching powder for disinfection of well

A) Sphygmomanometer

B) Boyel’s apparatus

C) Lactometer

D) Horrock’s apparatus

 

28. Hormone secreted by posterior pituitary gland

A) Follicle stimulating hormone

B) Oxytocin

C) Luteinizing hormone

D) Prolactin

 

29. Minimum distance between septic tank and source of water

A) 50 meters

B) 30 meters

C) 15 meters

D) 5 meters

 

30. The ability to understand self is termed as

A) Attention

B) Judgement

C) Perception

D) Insight

 

31. Defence mechanism in which unacceptable desires are redirected into socially desirable channels

A) Projection

B) Sublimation

C) Displacement

D) Rationalisation

 

32. False fixed belief that cannot be corrected by reasoning is called

A) Delusion

B) Hallucination

C) Illusion

D) Compulsion

 

33. Science dealing with ageing process

A) Oncology

B) Cytology

C) Gerontology

D) Pathology

 

34. The term for fear of height

A) Agoraphobia

B) Algophobia

C) Arachnophobia

D) Acrophobia

 

 

35. Rabies is caused by

A) Arbovirus

B) Adenovirus

C) Lyssavirus

D) Rotavirus

 

36. Population covered by an Anganwadi worker is

A) 2000

B) 3000

C) 2500

D) 1000

 

37. “Flag sign” is a characteristic feature of which disease ?

A) Kwashiorkor

B) Rickets

C) Marasmus

D) Poliomyelitis

 

38. Universal Immunisation Programme was launched in India in

A) 1975

B) 1980

C) 1985

D) 1990

 

39. Under Vitamin A prophylaxis programme, children between 1 to 6 years are given

A) 1 lakh IU of Vit. A

B) 2 lakhs IU of Vit. A

C) 2.5 lakhs IU of Vit. A

D) 1.5 lakhs IU of Vit. A

 

40. Sabin vaccine is given for the prevention of

A) Measles

B) Typhoid fever

C) Poliomyelitis

D) Diphtheria

 

41. One subcentre is for a population of

A) 30,000

B) 5,000

C) 15,000

D) 10,000

 

42. The most appropriate time to collect sputum specimen from a patient is

A) Before meals

B) After meals

C) Early morning

D) At bedtime

 

43. Immunity transferred to fetus from the mother through placenta is

A) Active natural immunity

B) Active artificial immunity

C) Passive natural immunity

D) Passive artificial immunity

 

44. The simplest method of prevent cross infection is

A) Disinfection

B) Sterilization

C) Handwashing

D) Fumigation

 

 

45. Immunization is a method of

A) Primary prevention

B) Secondary prevention

C) Tertiary prevention

D) Barrier prevention

 

46. Pap Smear Examination is done to diagnose

A) Ca breast

B) Ca cervix

C) Ca bladder

D) Ca rectum

 

47. Root of administration of measles vaccine is

A) Intradermal

B) Subcutaneous

C) Intramuscular

D) Oral

 

48. Which of the following is a live vaccine ?

A) TT

B) DPT

C) BCG

D) DT

 

49. Constant presence of a disease within a geographic area

A) Endemic

B) Epidemic

C) Pandemic

D) Outbreak

 

50. A person who harbours pathogenic organisms without showing the manifestations of the disease

A) Agent

B) Host

C) Carrier

D) Patient

 

51. Five teaspoon is equivalent to how many milliliters ?

A) 30 ml

B) 25 ml

C) 12 ml

D) 20 ml

 

52. Which pulse should the nurse palpate during rapid assessment of an adult unconscious patient ?

A) Radial

B) Brachial

C) Femoral

D) Carotid

 

53. The following are the standard tuberculosis drug Except

A) Streptomycin

B) Chloromycin

C) INH

D) Rifampicin

 

54. ___________ is a water soluble Vitamin.

A) Vitamin A

B) Vitamin K

C) Vitamin B

D) Vitamin D

 

55. The infant sit alone at the age of

A) 1 month

B) 2 months

C) 6 months

D) 12 months

 

56. The Child Labour Protection and Regulation Act prohibit employment of children in factories below the age of

A) 10 years

B) 14 years

C) 18 years

D) 21 years

 

57. Psychosocial development of adolescence is

A) Industry Vs Inferiority

B) Trust Vs mistrust

C) Identity Vs role confusion

D) Autonomy Vs Shame and doubt

 

58. A protein deficiency syndrome in which weight below 60%, growth retardation and generalised oedema

A) Marasmus

B) Kwashiorkor

C) Pellagra

D) Rickets

 

59. Damage to the upper brachial plexus involving the 5th and 6th cervical nerve roots result in

A) ERB’s palsy

B) Klumpke’s palsy

C) Torticollis

D) Meningocele

 

60. Which vaccine prevent both Measles and Rubella ?

A) Measles

B) OPV

C) DPT

D) MR

 

61. Surgical management of undescended testis

A) Orchiopexy

B) TURP

C) Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy

D) Duhamel’s operation

 

62. Congenital X linked recessive bleeding disorder caused by deficiency of coagulation factor VIII or IX

A) Thalassemia

B) Hemophilia

C) Sickle cell disease

D) ITP

 

63. Which of the following worm larvae is transmitted by penetrating skin on barefooted individual ?

A) Round worm

B) Pin worm

C) Hook worm

D) Round worm

 

64. A commonly found eating disorder in adolescent girl by reducing food intake mostly carbohydrate and fat or by refusing food or by inducing vomiting

A) Anorexia nervosa

B) Bulimia nervosa

C) Pica

D) Dyslexia

 

65. The dose of PPD used in Mantoux test is

A) 0.5 ml

B) 0.5 ml

C) 1 ml

D) 0.1 ml

 

66. Projectile non bilious vomiting visible peristalsis in the upper abdomen, palpable olive shaped mass, weight loss are clinical manifestation of

A) Hirschsprung’s disease

B) Oesophageal atesia

C) Intestinal obstruction

D) Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

 

67. The exclusive breast feeding recommended up to the age of

A) 3 months

B) 6 months

C) 1 year

D) 2 years

 

68. The type of pelvis commonly known as male pelvis is

A) Gynecoid pelvis

B) Anthropoid pelvis

C) Android pelvis

D) Platypelloid pelvis

 

69. Anterior fontanelle normally closes by the age of

A) 8 months

B) 6 months

C) 12 months

D) 18 months

 

70. Normal fetal heart rate

A) 100 – 120 beats/minute

B) 120 – 160 beats/minute

C) 60 – 100 beats/minute

D) 160 – 200 beats/minute

 

71. Name given to the endometrium during pregnancy

A) Endometriosis

B) Decidua

C) Myometrium

D) Corpus luteum

 

72. A woman who has not carried a pregnancy to the point of viability

A) Multipara

B) Nullipara

C) Nulligravida

D) None of the above

 

73. Partograph is a tool for

A) Treating complications of delivery

B) Observing the progress of labour

C) Monitoring woman with eclampsia

D) For finding gestational age

 

74. A complete or full dilated cervix measures

A) 8 cm

B) 9 cm

C) 10 cm

D) 15 cm

 

75. Normal blood glucose level of new born

A) 40 – 50 mg /100 ml

B) 50 – 60 mg/100 ml

C) 60 – 80 mg/100 ml

D) 70 – 110 mg/100 ml

 

76. The liberal administration of high concentration of oxygen to preterm babies for a prolonged period of period may lead to

A) Asphyxia

B) Retrolental fibroplasia

C) Cerebral hemorrhage

D) Hypothermia

 

77. An abortion in which the conceptus, placenta and membranes are expelled completely from the uterus

A) Inevitable abortion

B) Habitual abortion

C) Spontaneous abortion

D) Complete abortion

 

78. A mild, benign and transient mood change during puerperal period is termed as

A) Postpartum depression

B) Puerperal psychosis

C) Postpartum blues

D) AII of the above

 

79. Indications of emergency cesarean section not include

A) Cord prolapse

B) Cephalopelvic disproportion diagnosed in labor

C) Preterm baby

D) Eclampsia

 

80. An average life of the human being which is coming in the next years is

A) Life cycle approach

B) Life expectancy

C) Holistic approach of life

D) Quality of life

 

81. A woman whose husband does not want to continue as a life partner with her is

A) Widow

B) Divorced woman

C) Single woman

D) Deserted woman

 

82. Causative organism of syphilis is

A) Wuchereria bancrofti

B) Treponema pallidum

C) Hemophilus influenza

D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

 

83. A test to assess the patency of fallopian tube

A) Rubin’s test

B) Sickling test

C) Shick test

D) Widal test

 

84. VCTC stands for

A) Voluntary Counselling and Testing Centre

B) Vocational Counselling and Testing Centre

C) Voluntary Counselling and Treating Centre

D) Various Counselling and Therapy Centre

 

85. Following are 3 P’s of normal labour Except

A) Pelvis

B) Powers

C) Passenger

D) Parity

 

86. Janani Suraksha Yojana was launched on

A) 10th May 2006

B) 12th April 2005

C) 5th April 2008

D) 21st December 2006

 

87. An investigation to identify women at the risk of having a baby with neural tube defect

A) Amnioscopy

B) Alpha – Fetoprotein test

C) Fetal blood sampling

D) USG

 

88. The term given to reduction in fundal height after 38th weeks of gestation is

A) Quickening

B) Moulding

C) Lightening

D) None of the above

 

89. An abnormality of the placenta in which the umbilical cord is inserted at the edge or margin of the placenta ?

A) Velamentous insertion

B) Vasa previa

C) Battledore placenta

D) Circumvalleate placenta

 

90. During post partum period, deep vein thrombosis can be assessed by

A) Hegar’s sign

B) Osiander’s sign

C) Goodell’s sign

D) Homan’s sign

 

91. Which hormone is responsible for stimulating milk production ?

A) Estrogen

B) Progesterone

C) Prolactin

D) Oxytocin

 

92. According to MTP Act, medical termination of pregnancy is to deliberate induction

of abortion prior to

A) 16 weeks

B) 18 weeks

C) 24 weeks

D) 20 weeks

 

93. The ratio of infant deaths registered in a given year to the number of live births per 1000 live births is

A) Infant mortality rate

B) Perinatal mortality rate

C) Neonatal mortality rate

D) Maternal mortality rate

 

94. The name given to the lochia which occurs 4 – 10 days after delivery

A) Lochia serosa

B) Lochia rubra

C) Lochia alba

D) None of the above

 

95. Population covered by one sub centre in hilly, tribal and backward areas

A) 1500

B) 3000

C) 5000

D) 7000

 

96. A health worker should have better co-ordination with which of the following sectors ?

A) Grama panchayath

B) Religious representatives

C) Non-Governmental organizations

D) All of the above

 

97. National programme for control of blindness was launched in the year

A) 1976

B) 1962

C) 1982

D) 1995

 

98. National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme is implemented for the prevention and control of the following diseases Except

A) Kala-azar

B) Japanese encephalitis

C) Leptospirosis

D) Malaria

 

99. The approaches that can be used for providing Information Education and Communication are

A) Public education

B) Broadcasting

C) Social marketing

D) All of the above

 

100. Registers maintained in a sub centre includes all of the below Except

A) Family planning register

B) In patient register

C) U I P master register

D) M C H master register

 

Answers

 

1. B            2.D             3.A             4.C             5.C

 

6.A             7.B             8.D             9.C             10.D

 

11.A           12.B           13.D           14.C           15.A

 

16.B           17.A           18.B           19.A           20.A

 

21.C           22.A           23.B           24.D           25.C

 

26.A           27.D           28.B           29.C           30.D

 

31.B           32.A           33.C           34.D           35.C

 

36.D           37.A           38.C           39.B           40.C

 

41.B           42.C           43.C           44.C           45.A

 

46.B           47.B           48.C           49.A           50.C

 

51.B           52.D           53.B           54.C           55.C

 

56.B           57.C           58.B           59.A           60.D

 

61.A           62.B           63.C           64.A           65.D

 

66.D           67.B           68.C           69.D           70.B

 

71.B           72.B           73.B           74.C           75.B

 

76.B           77.D           78.C           79.C           80.B

 

81.D           82.B           83.A           84.A           85.D

 

86.B           87.B           88.C           89.C           90.D

 

91.C           92.D           93.A           94.A           95.B

 

96.D           97.A           98.C           99.D           100.B

  

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