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RUHS
MSc Nursing Entrance Exam 2018
Q. No. 1 Pushing fluid out of the blood
stream determining overall fluid movement across the capillary wall, is called-
Option A Hydrostatic pressure
Option B osmotic pressure
Option C Diffusion
Option D Vasoconstriction
Q. No. 2 The valve prevents the backflow
of blood into the right ventricle when the ventricular valve muscle relaxes-
Option A Tricuspid valve
Option B Bicuspid valve
Option C Pulmonary valve
Option D Pulmonary artery
Q. No. 3 Which of the following is not the
true regarding the GI Tract regulation?
Option A The myenteric plexus regulates GI tract
motility
Option B The submucosal plexus regulates GI Tract
secretion
Option C The neurons of the enteric nervous system
(ENS) can not function independently and are regulated by autonomic nervous
system.
Option D Parasympathetic fibres increase the activity
of ENS neurons while sympathetic neurons inhibit them
Q. No. 4 Which condition is responsible
for inspiration?
Option A Dilatation of intercostals muscles
Option B Contraction of intercostals muscles
Option C Contraction of diaphragm
Option D Both (Contraction of intercostals muscles)
& (Contraction of diaphragm)
Q. No. 5 "Primary immune
response"-the correct statement is-
Option A Involves IgG
Option B Antibody producing cells-memory B Cell
Option C No lag period
Option D Slow and sluggish
Q. No. 6 "Klebs Loeffler
bacillus" is the name of-
Option A Streptococci
Option B Salmonella typhi
Option C Corynebacterium diptheriae
Option D Meningococci
Q. No. 7 Which is the correct one
"theory of emotion"?
Option A Canon-bard theory
Option B McClelland's theory
Option C Frau'd theory
Option D Erikson's theory
Q. No. 8 "Profound mentally
retarded"-when the IQ Score is-
Option A 35-49
Option B 50-70
Option C 20-34
Option D below 20
Q. No. 9 The 'ectomorphy personality body
type"-which is the correct-
Option A Large, viscera, soft body
Option B socialise
Option C Tall, thin,and fragile
Option D strong muscular
Q. No. 10 Who has classified Type A and
Type B personality-
Option A Allport
Option B Hens eyesanch
Option C Carl jung
Option D Sheldon
Q. No. 11 Thinking is also referred as-
Option A Motivation
Option B cognition
Option C Emotions
Option D Perceptions
Q. No. 12 In a situation, in which a
person is faced with demands from two or more roles-
Option A Role distance
Option B Role playing
Option C Role conflict
Option D Role-set
Q. No. 13 The term-'Cultural diffusion"-which
is the correct one?
Option A Spreading of cultural attributes through
different cultural groups
Option B Immigrants comes to accept the culture
Option C Socialisation
Option D William F. Ogburn
Q. No. 14 The seat of glycolysis and
pentose phosphate pathway is-
Option A Mitochondria
Option B Endoplasmic reticulum
Option C Cytosol
Option D Golgi bodies
Q. No. 15 Glycosuria occurs when the
venous blood glucose exceeds-
Option A 140-150mg/dl
Option B 150-160mg/dl
Option C 160-170mg/dl
Option D 170-180mg/dl
Q. No. 16 Tissues in histopathology are
carried out in
Option A 10% buffered formation
Option B Normal saline
Option C 2% glutaraldehyde
Option D Camay's fixative
Q. No. 17 Serial HCG Test is used to
diagnose the following condition?
Option A Ca cervix
Option B Ca vagina
Option C Ca endometrium
Option D Choriocarcinoma
Q. No. 18 Jaggery is rich in-
Option A Calcium
Option B Iron
Option C Folic acid
Option D Vit c
Q. No. 19 "Bery bery " syndrome
is caused in which vitamin deficiency?
Option A Vit. B5
Option B Vit. B6
Option C Vit. B1
Option D Vit. B2
Q. No. 20 Endemic flurosis occurs when
fluorine present in water-
Option A 1-3mg/lit
Option B 3-5mg/lit
Option C 5-7mg/lit
Option D 7-9mg/lit
Q. No. 21 How much extra kcals of energy
is required in a lactating mother from 0-6 months of nursing the child?
Option A +350kcal
Option B +450kcal
Option C +550kacl
Option D +650kcal
Q. No. 22 One of the following is not the typical
feature of kwashiorkor?
Option A Muscle wasting
Option B Severe loss of subcutaneous fat
Option C Moon face
Option D Usually good appetite
Q. No. 23 Which among the following data
will give more accurate information regarding an end stage renal disease
client's fluid status-
Option A Daily weight checking of the client
Option B Intake and output chart
Option C Electrolyte level
Option D Bowel movement
Q. No. 24 1 Teaspoon =-----------ml?
Option A 1ml
Option B 3ml
Option C 5ml
Option D 7ml
Q. No. 25 Gradual increase in rate and depth
of respiration is known as-
Option A Hyperventilation
Option B Hypoventilation
Option C Kussmaul respiration
Option D Chene-stoke
Q. No. 26 Physician ordered oral as well
as nasal suction to a client, what you will do suction first?
Option A Nose
Option B Mouth
Option C Where secretion more
Option D Where secretion less
Q. No. 27 Identify the isotonic fluid
among the following?
Option A 0.9% NS
Option B 5% Dextrose
Option C RL
Option D all the above
Q. No. 28 Smokey brown colour urine
suggest the presence of ----------in urine?
Option A Bile pigment
Option B Blood pigment
Option C Small amount of blood
Option D high level of protein
Q. No. 29 Cleaning the bed sore has to be
done from-
Option A Inner to outer
Option B Outer to inner
Option C Wound part near to the care giver first
Option D All surface at a time
Q. No. 30 Straining during defecation
causes-
Option A Polyp's
Option B Diarrhoea
Option C Haemorrhoids
Option D Constipation
Q. No. 31 The most reliable way to assess
the respiratory status of a patient is-
Option A Observe the chest rising and falling
Option B Listen and feel the air movement
Option C Use cardiac monitor
Option D Count respiration for 10 second
Q. No. 32 Level of consciousness of a
client is assess using -
Option A Lund browder method
Option B Braden scale+GCS Scale
Option C GCS Scale
Option D Lund browder method +GCS Scale
Q. No. 33 The term gavage indicates-
Option A Administration of a liquid feeding into the
stomach
Option B Visual examination of the stomach
Option C Irrigation of the stomach with a solution
Option D A surgical opening through the abdomen to the
stomach
Q. No. 34 Appropriate distance to be
maintained between eye and dropper while instilling eye drops is-
Option A 1-2 cm
Option B 3-4 cm
Option C 4-6 cm
Option D 6-8 cm
Q. No. 35 In ABG analysis, which
parameters are assessed-
Option A Sodium bicarbonate, pH
Option B Sodium bicarbonate, carbon dioxide, oxygen,
pH
Option C Sodium bicarbonate, carbon dioxide, pH
Option D Carbon dioxide, oxygen, pH
Q. No. 36 The incision site of
tracheostomy are-
Option A 1st & 2nd tracheal ring
Option B 2nd & 3rd tracheal ring
Option C 5th tracheal ring
Option D 6th tracheal ring
Q. No. 37 A nurse is caring for a 9 year
old child who underwent to tonsillectomy, which of the following observation by
the nurse is most concerned?
Option A 30ml of dark brown secretion
Option B Heart rate of 90 beats/minute
Option C Infrequent swallowing
Option D Expectorating bright red secretion
Q. No. 38 Patient with colostomy should be
advised to eat-
Option A Bland diet
Option B Food low in fibre
Option C Everything they ate, before surgery but will
avoid the foods that causes gas
Option D Soft foods
Q. No. 39 A major causative organism for
peptic ulcer is-
Option A Escherichia coli
Option B streptococci
Option C Staphylococcus
Option D Helicobactor pylori
Q. No. 40 The most common early symptom of
laryngeal cancer is-
Option A Dysphagia
Option B Hoarseness of voice
Option C Airway obstruction
Option D Pneumothorax
Q. No. 41 All of the following factors
increases gastric motility-
Option A Abdominal distension
Option B Fear
Option C Stress
Option D Vagotomy
Q. No. 42 The most common AIDS related
neoplasm is -
Option A Non-hodgkin lymphoma
Option B Cervical cancer
Option C Kaposi's sarcoma
Option D Hodgkin lymphom
Q. No. 43 Which of the following
characteristics indicates protein deficiency in a client-
Option A Spoon shaped nails
Option B Increased bleeding time
Option C Negative nitrogen balance
Option D Positive nitrogen balance
Q. No. 44 The light sensitive and
pigmented layer of tissue in the eye is-
Option A Lens
Option B Retina
Option C Cornea
Option D Iris
Q. No. 45 .............bladder is expected
when a patient is experiencing spinal shock-
Option A Spastic
Option B Normal
Option C Atonic
Option D Un controlled
Q. No. 46The nurse received a patient from
cath lab following cardiac catheterisation which among the following is the
priority nursing action?
Option A Assess the pain
Option B Administered ordered medication
Option C Check distal site pulse
Option D Check level of consciousness
Q. No. 47 Complication of bronchiectasis
is-
Option A Cerebral abscess
Option B Lung abscess
Option C Amyloidosis
Option D All the above
Q. No. 48 Identify the pulmonary consolidation
among the following-
Option A Dullness
Option B Increased fremitus
Option C Crackles
Option D All the above
Q. No. 49 Highest oxygen concentration
will be delivered by-
Option A Nasal catheter
Option B Nasal cannula
Option C Partial non-rebreather mask
Option D Simple O2 mask
Q. No. 50 Jadu is suffering from peptic
ulcer, during his discharge counselling educate her to avoid-
Option A Coffee and cola
Option B Alcohol
Option C Spicy food item
Option D All the above
Q. No. 51 Which of the following is a complication
of splenectomy?
Option A Cholecystitis
Option B Pancreatitis
Option C Appendicitis
Option D Gastritis
Q. No. 52 Pre operative OT for appendectomy
NOT includes-
Option A Enema stat
Option B Consent
Option C Removal jewelleries
Option D Skin preparation
Q. No. 53 Amount of blood filtered in
renal capsule per minute is known as-
Option A Urine/minute
Option B Tidal volume
Option C Blood flow/minute
Option D GFR
Q. No. 54 The sensation of pain that is
described most commonly by the patients with angina is-
Option A Knifelike
Option C Sharp
Option D Tearing
Q. No. 55 The first choice of drug for
treating MI?
Option A Streptomycin
Option B Streptokinase
Option C Nitro-glycerine
Option D Heparin
Q. No. 56 Which of the following drug is
used to prevent blood clotting during hemodialysis procedure-
Option A Aspirin
Option B Heparin
Option C Protamin sulphate
Option D Coumadin
Q. No. 57 Dopamine is preferred in the management
of shock, because it-
Option A Decreases cardiac output
Option B Has prolonged action
Option C Peripheral vasoconstriction effect
Option D Has renal vasodilatory effect
Q. No. 58 The effect of the drug on
parasympathetic function declines rapidly in all organs except-
Option A Eye
Option B Heart
Option C Smooth muscle organs
Option D Glands
Q. No. 59 Exposure to noise above which of
the following db level causes permanent hearing loss-
Option A >60db
Option B >90db
Option C >100db
Option D >160db
Q. No. 60 Registration of pregnant women
within 12 weaks is the primary responsibility of
Option A ASHA
Option B Gram sevika
Option C ANM
Option D AWW
Q. No. 61 Transport host is one which -
Option A Parasite passes its sexual stage
Option B Parasite remains asexual
Option C Organism remain alive but does not undergo
development
Option D Life cycle is not complete
Q. No. 62 Outbreak of disease in bird
population-
Option A Epidemic
Option B Endemic
Option C Epornithic
Option D Zoonoses
Q. No. 63 Chain of spreading of malaria
is-
Option A Man-arthropod-man
Option B Mammal-bird-man
Option C Man-pig-man
Option D Bird-arthropod-man
Q. No. 64 BCG is-
Option A Inactive vaccine
Option B Live attenuated vaccine
Option C Killed vaccine
Option D Toxoides
Q. No. 65 Negri bodies were found in which
disease condition?
Option A Measles
Option B Rabies
Option C Rubella
Option D Pertusis
Q. No. 66 As per RCH, The first referral
unit is---------------
Option A District hospital
Option B PHC
Option C CHC
Option D Sub centre
Q. No. 67 Most potential agent that can be
used in bioterrorism-
Option A Viral encephalitis
Option B TB
Option C Clostridium botullinum
Option D Brucellosis
Q. No. 68 Following are the elements of
primary health care, except-
Option A Health education
Option B Intersectoral coordination
Option C Cost effectiveness
Option D Provision of essential drug
Q. No. 69 Common side effect of cu-T.
Option A Pain
Option B Bleeding
Option C Vaginal discharge
Option D Pelvic inflammation
Q. No. 70 Contraindications for OCP Use-
Option A Thromboembolism
Option B Liver disease
Option C Breast cancer
Option D All the above
Q. No. 71 Scotch tape swab is used to
identify-
Option A Tape worm
Option B Pin worm
Option C Angilostoma
Option D Hoock worm
Q. No. 72 Among the following secondary
prevention of TB is-
Option A BCG Vaccination
Option B Health education
Option C DOTS treatment
Option D Sputum test
Q. No. 73 Which among the following
activity need to be restricted in a client with Parkinson's disease?
Option A Walking on the yard on a cold winter day
Option B Taking cold water bath
Option C Taking food item which is high in water
content
Option D Sitting on the beach in sun on a summer day
Q. No. 74 OCD is best managed with which of
the following psychotherapy:-
Option A Psychodynamic
Option B Interpersonal
Option C Cognitive behaviour
Option D Supportive
Q. No. 75 Creating imaginary events to
fill up the memory gap is known as-
Option A Circumstantiality
Option B Neologism
Option C Confabulation
Option D Compulsion
Q. No. 76 The part of mind that
distinguish right from wrong & acts as censor of behaviour is known as-
Option A Id
Option B Ego
Option C Superego
Option D all the above
Q. No. 77 Which is the characteristic of
anorexia nervosa?
Option A Obsessed with weight loss
Option B Body image disturbance
Option C (Obsessed with weight loss) + (Body image
disturbance)
Option D vomiting with nausea
Q. No. 78 Which of the following comments,
if made by a patient who has major depression would indicate an increased risk
of suicide?
Option A I don't have any plan to kill myself.
Option B I don't want to share my problem with any
one.
Option C I won't be a problem much longer.
Option D My family member can't take care of myself.
Q. No. 79 Gamophobia means-
Option A Fear of closed place
Option B Fear of marriage
Option C Fear of divorce
Option D Fear of social isolation
Q. No. 80 In dissociative identity disorder
the host identity refers to:
Option A The one that was the first to emerge as new
identity
Option B The one that is the most dominant
Option C The one that existed before the onset of the
disorder
Option D The one that is the most aggressive
Q. No. 81 Which of the following is a
widely used classical conditioning method for treating nocturnal enuresis?
Option A Bell-and-whistle technique
Option B Bell-and-battery technique
Option C Alarm system technique
Option D Bell book and candle technique
Q. No. 82 Persistent or recurrent episodes
of depersonalization are the central features of Depersonalization Disorder
These symptoms are characterised by:
Option A Feelings of detachment or estrangement from
the self
Option B The sense of living in a dream or in a film
Option C A sense of not being in control of their
behaviour
Option D All of the above
Q. No. 83 A child is diagnosed with wilm's
tumor during assessment, the nurse expects to detect-
Option A Gross hematuria
Option B Dysuria
Option C Abdominal pain
Option D Abdominal mass
Q. No. 84 Identify the incorrect statement
related to mongolian spot in new-born baby-
Option A Disappear within a year
Option B Flat, gray-blue-black in colour
Option C Any part of the body of dark skinned babies
Option D Are indicative of parenteral abuse
Q. No. 85 'Rh-ve' mother delivered a baby,
which among the following list is more likely to be ordered for the baby?
Option A Blood culture
Option B Direct coomb's
Option C Indirect coomb's
Option D Platelet count
Q. No. 86 Bag mask ventilation is
contraindicated to-
Option A Polycystic kidney
Option B Cyanosis
Option C Diaphragmatic hernia
Option D Birth asphyxia
Q. No. 87 Child who is affected with
Bell's palsy, moistening of the effected eye has to be done to present-
Option A Conjunctivitis
Option B Blindness
Option C Keratitis
Option D Drooping of the eye lid
Q. No. 88 In twin to twin transfusion
syndrome in donor twin all the signs & symptoms are present except-
Option A Oligohydramnios
Option B Plethora
Option C Hypovolemia
Option D Anemia
Q. No. 89 Diaper rashes most commonly
caused by
Option A Diphtheria
Option B E-coli
Option C Staphylococcus aurous
Option D Streptococcus
Q. No. 90 What should be the priority
nursing intervention in a child with croup?
Option A Arrange a cool, soothing environment
Option B Pad side rails of the ribs
Option C Place a tracheostomy set at the bedside
Option D All the above
Q. No. 91 Subacute sclerosing
panencephalitis is a complication associated with ....... vaccine
Option A Measles
Option B Rubella
Option C JE
Option D BCG
Q. No. 92 At birth, ductus venosus
collapses and changes to-
Option A Ligamentum teres
Option B Ligamentum venosum
Option C Foramen ovale
Option D Septum secundum
Q. No. 93 Formation at swelling due to
stagnation of fluid in the layers at scalp beneath the gridle of contact is
Option A Moulding
Option B Haematoma
Option C Haemangioma
Option D Capat succedaneum
Q. No. 94 The pelvic shape has the poorest
progress from vaginal delivery
Option A Platypelloid
Option B Anthropoid
Option C Android
Option D Gynecoid
Q. No. 95 The cardinal function of decidua
is
Option A Immunity
Option B Production of hormones
Option C Maintenance of pregnancy
Option D All the above
Q. No. 96 Wide-gap in the suture is
Option A Diameter
Option B Circumference
Option C Fontanel's
Option D Inlet
Q. No. 97 The dangerous placenta previa-
Option A Low lying
Option B Type-I anterior
Option C Type-II posterior
Option D Marginal
Q. No. 98 Multi system disorder of unknown
etiology characterised by hypertension(140/90 mm of hg or above) with
protenuria after 20th weak of pregnancy is called:
Option A Gestational hypertension
Option B Pre eclampsia
Option C Eclampsia
Option D Chronic hypertension with pregnancy
Q. No. 99 Vaginal bleeding after 28th
weaks of pregnancy which is sudden onset, painless, causeless & recurrent
is known as:
Option A Abortion
Option B Abruptio placenta
Option C Placenta previa
Option D Vasa previa
Q. No. 100 Perinatal transmission of HIV
means all except
Option A Transplacental transmission
Option B Vertical transmission by preterm birth
Option C Breast feeding
Option D Sexual contact
Q. No. 101 Partoghraph is a composite
graphical record which gives information of all the following expect:
Option A Cervical dilatation
Option B Descent of head against duration of labour
Option C Level of dehydration
Option D Uterine contraction
Q. No. 102 Lochia is the vaginal discharge
for first fortnight during puerperium which originates from-
Option A Uterine body
Option B Cervix
Option C Vagina
Option D All of the above
Q. No. 103 Complete breech presentation
means-
Option A The thighs are flexed on the trunk and the
legs are extended at the knee joints
Option B Both thighs and legs are partially extended
Option C Thighs are flexed of hips and the legs at the
knees
Option D Thighs are extended but knees are flexed
Q. No. 104 Magnessium sulphate(MgSO4) is
the drug choice for-
Option A Myasthenia gravis
Option B Impaired renal function
Option C Eclampsia
Option D Respiratory faliure
Q. No. 105 Which of the following does not
belong to a project aid?
Option A Overhead projector
Option B Blackboard
Option C Epidiascope
Option D Slide projector
Q. No. 106 Dynamic approach to teaching
means-
Option A Teaching should be forceful and effective
Option B Teachers should be energetic and dynamic
Option C The topics of teaching should not be static,
but dynamic
Option D The student should be required to learn
through activities
Q. No. 107 Principles of counselling whole
except-
Option A It is concerned with developing student's
self understanding and self determination
Option B It is not concerned with while individual
Option C It is more than activity of specialist
Option D It is a continuous and slow process
Q. No. 108 Aim of nursing education is-
Option A Physical development
Option B Mental development
Option C Vocational development
Option D All the above
Q. No. 109 It is consist of listing of
steps , activities or behaviour which the observer records when an incident
occurs-
Option A Likert scale
Option B Check list
Option C Rating Scale
Option D Intent
Q. No. 110
The term 'phenomenology' is associated with the process of
Option A Analysis of variance
Option B correlational study
Option C Qualitative study
Option D Probablity sampling
Q. No. 111 Simple random sampling is a
type of
Option A Probablity sampling
Option B Non-probablity sampling
Option C Convenient sampling
Option D None of the above
Q. No. 112 A tentative prediction or
explanation or an educational guess of the relationship between two or more
variables is called
Option A Continuous variables
Option B Hypothesis
Option C Assumption
Option D Limitation
Q. No. 113 A true experimental study is a
scientific investigation characterised by the following properties except-
Option A Manipulation
Option B Control
Option C Cohort group
Option D Randomisation
Q. No. 114 Measures of central tendency
includes all the following except-
Option A Mean
Option B Mode
Option C Paired 't'-test
Option D Median
Q. No. 115 A written order for supplies
and equipment or for their repair is
Option A Inventory
Option B Indent
Option C Requisition
Option D Quotation
Q. No. 116 Principles of administration
includes all the following except-
Option A Unity of command
Option B Unity of direction
Option C Scaler chain of command
Option D Unity of collective behaviour
Q. No. 117 In the communication process, a
receiver is-
Option A A message pathway
Option B The person who encodes an idea
Option C Message interference
Option D The person who decodes a message
Q. No. 118 Components of in-service education
are as follows except:
Option A Orientation skill training programme
Option B Continuous nursing education programme
Option C Health programme
Option D Leadership training programme
Q. No. 119 Recruitment, selection,
development , utilisation and accommodation of human resources by organisation
is called as what?
Option A Staffing
Option B Administration
Option C Human resource management
Option D Controlling
Q. No. 120 Causes of bed scores are:
Option A Friction
Option B Moisture
Option C Presence of pathogenic organism
Option D All of the above
Answers
1.A
2.C 3.C 4.D 5.D
6.C 7.A 8.D 9.C 10.C
11.B 12.C 13.A 14.C 15.C
16.A 17.D 18.B 19.C 20.B
21.C 22.C 23.B 24.C 25.C
26.A 27.D 28.B 29.B 30.C
31.B 32.C 33.A 34.A 35.B
36.B 37.D 38.C 39.D 40.B
41.A 42.C 43.C 44.B 45.C
46.C 47.D 48.D 49.C 50.D
51.B 52.A 53.D 54.B 55.B
56.B 57.D 58.A 59.C 60.A
61.C 62.C 63.A 64.B 65.B
66.C 67.C 68.C 69.B 70.D
71.B 72.C 73.D 74.C 75.C
76.C 77.C 78.C
79.B 80.C
81.B 82.D 83.D 84.D 85.B
86.C 87.C 88.B 89.C 90.C
91.A 92.B 93.D 94.C 95.C
96.C 97.C 98.B 99.C 100.D
101.C
102.D 103.C 104.C 105.B
106.D 107.B 108.D 109.B 110.C
111.A 112.B 113.C 114.C 115.C
116.D 117.B 118.C 119.C 120.D
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